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Objections To St. Thomas Omnipotence Of God

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Nelson Pike shows that St. Thomas Aquinas presents three possible solutions to the problem regarding the incoherence between God’s inability to sin and His omnipotence, or ability to do anything. Only the third solution will be discussed in this paper. St. Thomas’ goal is to prove that God can coherently be both omnipotent and impeccable. In this instance, impeccable means perfectly good and lacking evil. At this point, it may be helpful to specify how the terms “good” and “evil’ will be used moving forward. In his discussion, Pike defines “evil” as “Any situation which is such that if one were to (knowingly) bring it about (though it is avoidable), that individual would be morally reprehensible” (212). This definition should suit our purposes, …show more content…

Thomas Aquinas’ argument, one may think that a major problem arises. In the first objection, Pike says that God cannot be held to an entirely different standard of moral goodness than humans are held to (212). Then in the second objection, Pike goes on to say that God is held to a higher standard of moral goodness than humans (214). At first glance, it can feel like Pike made a mistake. That said, I do not think his objections contradict one another. In the first objection, Pike shows that if God had His own standard of moral goodness, it would be based in something other than the praiseworthy deeds our standard is based in (212). What exactly would God’s standard of moral goodness be based in? Well, some set of acts that do not carry with them the complete praise we typically give to perfectly good acts. Because this other quality does not carry with it the praise that we base our admiration of impeccability on, it cannot make God impeccable in the normal praiseworthy definition of the word (212). In his second objection, Pike says that God should be held to a more exact, or higher, standard than humans (214). “Higher standard” does not explicitly imply an entirely different standard. A “higher standard” is usually based in the same qualities as the standard it rises above (in this case, the praise for moral acts), just with a stricter criterion. God’s higher standard would still require acts which we consider morally …show more content…

Thomas Aquinas’ argument switches the standards of moral goodness between humans and God. While this is a valiant attempt to summarize Pike’s objections, it says too much. Pike never says that Aquinas tries to hold humans to higher standard of moral goodness than God. Moreover, Pike does not imply that St. Thomas tries to hold God to a lower standard of moral goodness than humans. Pike simply shows that St. Thomas’ argument holds God to a standard of moral goodness which does not entail impeccability, and that God should be held to a higher (not different) standard of moral goodness than humans (212,

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