Sexual Purity: a Call to Holiness

4448 Words Apr 6th, 2014 18 Pages
Sexual Purity: A Call to Holiness INTRODUCTION The world in which Christians live today is very similar to the world that Paul taught, lived, and traveled in. Christians are surrounded by and struggle with the issue of sexual purity that believers struggled with in Paul’s day. Sexual immorality is a result of a much larger problem: the refusal of God’s call to be holy. The pagan Gentiles during the New Testament had a skewed picture of moral issues, including sexuality. F. F. Bruce provides a unique look into Greek culture and morality when he quotes Demosthenes who lived during this time period: “We keep mistresses for pleasure, concubines for our day-today bodily needs, but we have wives to produce legitimate children and serve as …show more content…
4:7 For God did not call us for the purpose of impurity but to holiness. 4:8 For that very reason then, the one who rejects this is not rejecting man but God, who gives his Holy Spirit to be put in you. GRAMMATICAL, SYNTACTICAL, & THEOLOGICAL COMMENTARY 4:3 Verse three begins with the emphatic position of the near demonstrative pronoun Τοῦτο which acts as the subject of the clause and is a reference to the noun in apposition ἁγιασµὸς. Gordon Fee makes a crucial point that Τοῦτο is “defined by a series of appositives, each one becoming more case specific” as Paul’s discourse continues.4 Although Τοῦτο is written first in Greek, the explanatory conjunction γάρ is translated first, “For this,” in order to communicate the anaphoric use of the conjunction in reference to Paul’s statements in 4:2. The
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Chart created from information in Gordon Fee’s, NICNT, 142-143. Gordon Fee, NICNT, 144.

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following phrase θέληµα τοῦ θεοῦ (“God’s will”) functions as the predicate nominative; which is suggested by 5:18, where this phrase is used again (ἐστιν is understood in the context).5 θέληµα remains anarthrous in both verse references (4:3; 5:18) and the omission of the article followed by the subjective genitive has been a point of contention among scholars. F. F. Bruce suggests the article was absorbed by the emphatic Τοῦτο in which the clause began. Other scholars,
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