For non-negative integer n, let the function fn be given by (picture) (where n! = 1 · 2 ··· n, with the convention that 0! = 1, so that f0 (x) = 1, f1 (x) = 1 + x etc.). a) Show by induction that for non-negative integers n then f2n (x) is a positive number for all real numbers x. (hint: you can use that fn + 1 (x) = fn (x) + (xn + 1/(n+1)!) and that f′n+1 (x) = fn (x) (why ?!) (b) Using the result in part (a) (incl. hint); why can we conclude that f9: R → R has an inverse function? Does f10 have an inverse function? (c) Given n ≥ 0; justify that limx→ ∞
For non-negative integer n, let the function fn be given by (picture) (where n! = 1 · 2 ··· n, with the convention that 0! = 1, so that f0 (x) = 1, f1 (x) = 1 + x etc.). a) Show by induction that for non-negative integers n then f2n (x) is a positive number for all real numbers x. (hint: you can use that fn + 1 (x) = fn (x) + (xn + 1/(n+1)!) and that f′n+1 (x) = fn (x) (why ?!) (b) Using the result in part (a) (incl. hint); why can we conclude that f9: R → R has an inverse function? Does f10 have an inverse function? (c) Given n ≥ 0; justify that limx→ ∞
Algebra & Trigonometry with Analytic Geometry
13th Edition
ISBN:9781133382119
Author:Swokowski
Publisher:Swokowski
Chapter5: Inverse, Exponential, And Logarithmic Functions
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 43RE
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For non-negative integer n, let the function fn be given by
(picture)
(where n! = 1 · 2 ··· n, with the convention that 0! = 1, so that f0 (x) = 1, f1 (x) = 1 + x etc.).
a) Show by induction that for non-negative integers n then f2n (x) is a positive number for all real numbers x.
(hint: you can use that fn + 1 (x) = fn (x) + (xn + 1/(n+1)!) and that f′n+1 (x) = fn (x) (why ?!)
(b) Using the result in part (a) (incl. hint); why can we conclude that
f9: R → R has an inverse function? Does f10 have an inverse function?
(c) Given n ≥ 0; justify that limx→ ∞ fn (x) / ex = 0.
(hint: Fun fact: limx → ∞ limn → ∞ fn (x) / ex = 1, while limn → ∞ limx → ∞ fn (x) / ex = 0. Is this a cause for concern?
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