I asked this question (If X(n,p) is a binomial random variable with parameters n and p, then why is it that X(n+1,p) stochastically dominates X(n,p)?) this morning and got a response which was fine--no complaints about that!  But, I was wondering if the question could be answered without showing a formal proof, but rather just by a verbal-type of explanation?   I was thinking something along these lines:  X(n+1,p) stochastically dominates X(n,p) since the expected value of X(n+1,p)=(n+1)p is greater than the expected value of X(n,p)=np, and X(n+1,p) and X(n,p) are increasing functions.  Let me know if this makes sense or needs revision.  Thanks for the help.  I appreciate it.

College Algebra
7th Edition
ISBN:9781305115545
Author:James Stewart, Lothar Redlin, Saleem Watson
Publisher:James Stewart, Lothar Redlin, Saleem Watson
Chapter9: Counting And Probability
Section9.4: Expected Value
Problem 1E: If a game gives payoffs of $10 and $100 with probabilities 0.9 and 0.1, respectively, then the...
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I asked this question (If X(n,p) is a binomial random variable with parameters n and p, then why is it that X(n+1,p) stochastically dominates X(n,p)?) this morning and got a response which was fine--no complaints about that!  But, I was wondering if the question could be answered without showing a formal proof, but rather just by a verbal-type of explanation?  

I was thinking something along these lines:  X(n+1,p) stochastically dominates X(n,p) since the expected value of X(n+1,p)=(n+1)p is greater than the expected value of X(n,p)=np, and X(n+1,p) and X(n,p) are increasing functions.  Let me know if this makes sense or needs revision. 

Thanks for the help.  I appreciate it.

 

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