Chapter 1.4, Problem V.15E

Only final answer without explain

Casey is on trial under criminal allegations that she engaged in fraudulent behavior at the company she manages. She is worried when the plaintiff alleges that it has "unambiguous proof" that Casey is guilty. Which of the following is most likely true?     If the plaintiff provides proof only up to the level of "clear and convincing," Casey can still be acquitted.   Casey need not worry about the plaintiff's evidence, since parties tend to boast about the level of proof they can establish anyway.   If the plaintiff meets a "clear and convincing" burden of proof, Casey will be found guilty.   The plaintiff will most likely prove Casey is guilty, since criminal charges only need to meet a prima facie burden of proof.

The Final Rule defines “disclosure” as?

Employees are prohibited from receiving any form of payments, gifts, favor, or use of services or entertainment or gratuities given by third parties that may compromise our integrity or affect our business judgment. Which of the following topic in the Code covers the above? (I) Conflict of Interest (II) Receiving and Giving Business Courtesy (III) Business Dealings With Others (IV) Embracing Good Practice (V) Purchasing & Procurement

1. Which of the following describes when a person does not understand that a contract is being made or does not understand its general nature due to a mental condition caused by medication, drugs, alcohol, illness, or age.     Factual incapacity     Status incapacity     Infactual incapacity     Illegal incapacity   2. It’s possible the validity of a contract may be affected if one or both parties made a mistake. True False 3. Which of the following is not a problem area in determining whether the parties to a contract have genuinely agreed to be bound by the terms:     Lack of contractual capacity     Deception     Pressure     Privity of contract     Mistake

Sometimes an issur with a property is discovered during the pre-closing stage. Buyers may be willing to accept deficiencies if they an compensate through a price reduction. Which of the following is correct regarding adjusting a purchase price to offset a deflciency.Select one: O. The value of the price adjustment may become a matter of negotiations between the parties. O. A new agreement of purchase and sale must be drafted and signed to finalize the price adjustment. O. A formal appraisal is always required to determine the adjusted purchase price.  O. Buyers are contractually obligated to negotiate an adjusted purchase price.

Explain the probable interpretation by an arbitrator of the following language. If management determines that qualifications are relatively equal among applicants’ seniority shall govern. If qualifications are equal, among bidders, seniority shall govern. If qualifications are substantially equal, among bidders, seniority shall govern. If management deems qualifications are equal among bidders, seniority shall govern.

In the context of the First Sale Doctrine (17 U.S.C. § 109), which statement accurately describes its application to the distribution and resale of copyrighted material? Note that we had this business case when we were studying Netflix during their before streaming DVD rental era. The First Sale Doctrine allows for the unlimited reproduction and distribution of copyrighted digital content without the need for permission from the copyright holder   The First Sale Doctrine requires companies to obtain permission from the copyright holder for each rental or resale of a physical copy of digital content, limiting the availability of titles for companies like Netflix   The First Sale Doctrine permits the resale or rental of physical copies of digital content, such as DVDs, without requiring authorization from the copyright holder, enabling companies like Netflix to offer a wide variety of titles   The First Sale Doctrine only protects the resale or rental of purely digital copies,…

Which of the following is/are true?I. An entity shall present any items of the income and expenses as extraordinary in the notes to financialstatement.II. An entity shall not present any items of the income and expenses as extraordinary in the face of incomestatement or statement of comprehensive income.III. An entity shall present any items of the income and expenses as extraordinary in the face of the incomestatement or statement of comprehensive income.IV. An entity shall not present any items of the income and expenses as extraordinary in the notes to financialstatement. a. I and IIb. II and IIIc. I and IVd. II and IV