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Similarities Between Hume And Kant

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There are many similarities and oppositions in regard to Hume and Kant’s theories on aesthetic experiences of the beautiful. Perhaps the main dispute between these two philosophers would be how exactly beauty is defined. According to Hume, beauty is defined by a group of experts within the area of interest. Kant states beauty only arises when an object is universally regarded as such. However, an essential agreement between Kant and Hume would be beauty is overall not subjective, but more so objective in that, when making a judgement about beauty, one must have no bias about the object in question. In this paper, I will further dissect these two arguments as well as other key similarities and oppositions. As previously mentioned, Hume and Kant both strictly believe a person must have no prejudice towards whatever is in question. For example, a person cannot fairly judge whether or not a painting is beautiful if they have previously seen other versions of the same painting. I find this premise plausible and a great example would be food. Two weeks ago, my parents came into town to visit me. I invited them to an Asian restaurant for dim sum, and …show more content…

Universality’s role within the idea of beauty is similar in both Hume and Kant’s theories. To begin, Hume and Kant explain personal views of beauty in a like manner. Hume declares there are sentiments and judgments while Kant believes there are agreeableness and beauty. Sentiments and an item being agreeable are similar in that they both cannot be wrong. I may say tea is agreeable to me, and I would be right because I am speaking about myself. This sentiment is right because I am not trying to be right. However, Hume’s judgments and Kant’s beauty express you cannot claim something is beautiful just because you personally think it is. Things start to get rocky when deciding who gets to determine what is

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