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Comparing Mill And Aristotle's Definition Of Happiness

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Mill and Aristotle definitions of happiness are vastly different between the two. For Aristotle he goes into discuss three different parts. He goes into discuss the term pleasure. The next was to attempt to claim honor and the very last and to most the most important the way of contemplation or well rationality. Real happiness to Aristotle and of course the kind that leads to moral goods is through contemplation. Happiness for Aristotle really depends on us as people as well. With him it’s more with rational principles. To him happiness is more of an activity.
For Mill its more of the utilitarianism approach when regards to happiness. Mill utilitarianism theory is based on happiness as pleasure and the absence of pain. Mill likes to argue that happiness is the sole basis of morality and that people desire anything and everything but happiness. Which I find to be quite funny if you ask me. With Mill who is more of a utilitarianism approach it’s more about value. To Mill the acts that …show more content…

Kant’s definition is different for sure it more so refers to duty. For Kant he really thinks about what one should really do. With Kant and his theory should in my personal opinion be criticized. With his Theory he is marked as being the last Enlightenment thinker. Kant aims to provide grounds of moral obligation in the nature of a rational human being. He essentially wants to deduce his own ethical theory by reasoning. Kant likes to call happiness the complete satisfaction with ones own self worth and being. This idea is not really far fetched from what Mill believes with pleasure without pain reference. It hits me with Kant’s definition that is it truly moral to take what you want and not let others have that same thing that they desire. Getting what one wants would mean that others would be prevented from what they want so everyone is not truly happy am I right? So if morality is truly defined then not everyone can be moral which does seem

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