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Richard III Compare And Contrast

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Richard III displays a England in the wake of constant revolutions and tumult which has left her in an unclear state. Without religion, ceremony, or even law left to govern the people only self-interested, and therefore apolitical, people thrive. As such Richard III comes to the throne with a thunderous speed and a wake of bodies in his trail. However, this was not always the character of England. Prior to the constant revolution and tumult was the rule of King John which, while not free of evil, was dedicated toward something outside of the self. Through an examination of each play one can see the requirements for a truly ‘political’ rule. At a glance one might call Richard III pure evil for the sake of evil. However, this would be to look …show more content…

Namely that each of them has to deal with questions of legitimacy to their rule. Right at the beginning of King John the French messenger calls him “the borrow'd majesty, of England here” (1.1). What is different from this question of legitimacy and Richard III is that it is a dispute over lineage. In the case of Richard III, no one disputes the legitimacy of his blood, but instead of his fitness to rule. Furthermore, the first challenge to King John’s legitimacy comes from a foreign power. Meaning that King John at the start of the play has the silent consent of his subjects to rule over them. Richard III does not wish for silent consent, instead favoring unwavering loyalty. This is evidenced by his murder of Buckingham for simply not wanting to kill Richard III’s relatives. The irony here is not lost on me; Richard III’s legitimacy is questioned because of his fitness to rule because being fit to rule means having England’s best interest in mind. King John’s legitimacy is questioned due to ceremonial beliefs, but despite this he is actively trying to do what is best for England. If each King were to be found in the other’s position then, it seems, the challenge to their legitimacy would be lessened to a negligible

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