Suppose p→1 and V→0. Would the plaintiff bring a suit under the American system? Under the English system?For what amount would the defendant settle in the American System? Under the English system?Under each system, would a rational plaintiff sue?
Suppose p→1 and V→0. Would the plaintiff bring a suit under the American system? Under the English system?For what amount would the defendant settle in the American System? Under the English system?Under each system, would a rational plaintiff sue?
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Your Question:
Suppose p→1 and V→0. Would the plaintiff bring a suit under the American system? Under the English system?
For what amount would the defendant settle in the American System? Under the English system?
Under each system, would a rational plaintiff sue?
