A 35-year-old female presents to her physician for evaluation of skin lesions over the dorsum of bothfeet, shown in the image attached. Her past medical history is significant for pernicious anemia andhypertension. Which of the following best explains the underlying mechanism responsible for the lesionsshown?Answers A - EA Absence of melanocytes in the skinB Aggregation of melanosomes within the cytoplasm of melanocytesCDELinear pattern of melanocyte proliferationNormal melanocytes number with increased melanin pigmentPoor melanin formation in melanocytesOOOOQuestion #45 attachment

Vitamin B 12 Deficiency: Vitamin B12 deficiency is a condition that occurs when the body lacks…

Answered: feet, shown in the image attached. Her…

Principles Of Pharmacology Med Assist

6th Edition

ISBN:9781337512442

Author:RICE

Publisher:RICE

Chapter17: Antineoplastic Agents

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 20RQ

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