If the electric field of a point charge were proportional to 1/r3instead of 1/r2, would Gauss’s law still be valid? Explain your reasoning.(Hint: Consider a spherical Gaussian surface centered on a singlepoint charge.)
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If the electric field of a point charge were proportional to 1/r3
instead of 1/r2, would Gauss’s law still be valid? Explain your reasoning.
(Hint: Consider a spherical Gaussian surface centered on a single
point charge.)
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