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Equality In Voting In The United States

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The citizens of the United States struggled for just about 200 years to obtain the promise of equality in voting rights for all (African-Americans and women), and yet the turnout for voters has been consistently below the fifty percent mark. Is there a decrease in voters who are exercising their right to cast a vote, or is it a surveying error turning out an illusion of low voter turnout? There has been a lot of effort put forth to explain this phenomenon, but have yet to come up with one solid answer or reason. It is known that not all residents of the United States (who are of voting age) are even allowed to vote. If the numbers are adjusted accordingly by using the percentage of those who are both eligible and of voting age, then the turnout percentages will rise considerably. This method is also flawed due to the comparison they are making since during the time around the Civil War …show more content…

Voting laws in the United States are much different than in other countries around the world. For instance, in Australia, Italy, and Belgium voting isn’t considered optional and citizens can be reprimanded or ostracized, even fined for not casting their votes. In the 1880s Bavaria encouraged citizens to vote by charging citizens the cost of a second election if the first election’s voter turnout didn’t meet the two-thirds threshold. I believe that would be very motivating to citizens of the United States, and I believe we would see a huge increase in voter turnout percentages if we were to implement such an idea into law. I understand that this would not be practical for the United States as some could argue whether or not forcing people to vote is democratic. Along with out right to vote, we also have the right to not vote, also going against our responsibility to our civic duty to

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