A 35-year-old female presents to her physician for evaluation of skin lesions over the dorsum of both feet, shown in the image attached. Her past medical history is significant for pernicious anemia and hypertension. Which of the following best explains the underlying mechanism responsible for the lesions shown? Answers A - E A Absence of melanocytes in the skin B Aggregation of melanosomes within the cytoplasm of melanocytes C Linear pattern of melanocyte proliferation D Normal melanocytes number with increased melanin pigment E Poor melanin formation in melanocytes O O O Question #45 attachment
A 35-year-old female presents to her physician for evaluation of skin lesions over the dorsum of both feet, shown in the image attached. Her past medical history is significant for pernicious anemia and hypertension. Which of the following best explains the underlying mechanism responsible for the lesions shown? Answers A - E A Absence of melanocytes in the skin B Aggregation of melanosomes within the cytoplasm of melanocytes C Linear pattern of melanocyte proliferation D Normal melanocytes number with increased melanin pigment E Poor melanin formation in melanocytes O O O Question #45 attachment
Chapter15: Feed And Protect Me
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 2M
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