Both the capital asset pricing model and the arbitrage pricing theory rely on the proposition that a no-risk, no-wealth investment should earn, on average, no return. Explain why this should be the case, being sure to describe briefly the similarities and differences between the CAPM and the APT. Also, using either of these theories, explain how superior investment performance can be established.

Both the capital asset pricing model and the arbitrage pricing theory rely on the proposition that a no-risk, no-wealth investment should earn, on average, no return. Explain why this should be the case, being sure to describe briefly the similarities and differences between the CAPM and the APT. Also, using either of these theories, explain how superior investment performance can be established.

Principles of Accounting Volume 2

19th Edition

ISBN:9781947172609

Author:OpenStax

Publisher:OpenStax

Chapter11: Capital Budgeting Decisions

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 3MC: The third step for making a capital investment decision is to establish baseline criteria for...

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The third step for making a capital investment decision is to establish baseline criteria for alternatives. Which of the following would not be an acceptable baseline criterion? A. payback method B. accounting rate of return C. internal rate of return D. inventory turnover
According to Capital Asset Pricing theory (CAPM), in a competitive marketplace: Group of answer choices A. only systematic risk is rewarded. B. only diversifiable risk is rewarded. C. all types of risks are rewarded. D. no risk is rewarded.
Capital Asset Pricing Model is based on certain assumptions, which have been criticized after empirical testing of the model. Discuss the critique of the model in the context of those assumption. Also discuss the empirical findings of the CAPM. What sort of models have been presented to overcome the drawbacks of CAPM?
In your view, what is the most important prediction of the Capital Asset Pricing Model? Among the assumptions made in the CAPM, which one do you think is the most unrealistic, and why?
The general arbitrage pricing theory (APT) differs from thesingle-factor capital asset pricing model (CAPM) because theAPT: A. Places more emphasis on market risk.B. Minimizes the importance of diversification.C. Recognizes multiple unsystematic risk factors.D. Recognizes multiple systematic risk factors.
According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), which of the following statements is true (only of them is): (a) A share with more total risk should provide a higher return than one with less total risk. (b) A share with more idiosyncratic risk should provide a higher return than one with less idiosyncratic risk. (c) A share with more systematic risk should provide a higher return than one with less systematic risk. (d) Only a share with no risk (either systematic or idiosyncratic) should pay the risk free rate. (e) The expected market return is the appropriate discount rate of risky projects.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) The Capital Asset Pricing Model is the most important method for estimating the cost of capital that is used in practice. b) Because the risk that determines expected returns is unsystematic risk, which is measured by beta, the cost of capital for an investment is the expected return available on securities with the same beta. c) A common assumption is that a project has the same risk as the firm. d) To determine a project's cost of capital we need to estimate its beta.
Which of the following is NOT true? In risk-neutral valuation the risk-free rate is used to discount expected cash flows Options can be valued based on the assumption that investors are risk neutral Risk-neutral valuation provides prices that are only correct in a world where investors are risk-neutral In risk-neutral valuation the expected return on all investment assets is set equal to the risk-free rate
In contrast to the capital asset pricing model, arbitrage pricing theory:a. Requires that markets be in equilibrium.b. Uses risk premiums based on micro variables.c. Specifies the number and identifies specific factors that determine expected returns.d. Does not require the restrictive assumptions concerning the market portfolio.
The capital asset pricing model expresses the cost of equity as a function of a return on riskless assets, a market premium, and: Select one:a. Unsystematic risk.b. None of these.c. The cost of debt.d. Systematic risk.
What are the main criticisms of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)? What does the empirical evidence suggests regarding the validity of CAPM? Provide detailed explanations and studies referring to each criticism.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the internal rate of return criterion? Select one: a. It is not a true rate of return. b. It uses an arbitrary benchmark cutoff rate. c. It ignores time value of money, cash flows, and market values. d. It cannot be used to rank independent projects. e. It may lead to incorrect decisions when comparing mutually exclusive investments.