Consider a European call and a European put with the same strike price and time to maturity. Show that they change in value by the same amount when the volatility increases from a level ₁ to a new level 2 within a short period of time. (Hint: Use put-call parity.)
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- The manager believes that given the Fx change to £0.840$ and the price sensitivities, the local price can be increased 10% over the initial price. What will be the new price in euros? € How many units will be sold, and what is the resulting total contribution for the (a) low and (b) high price sensitivity scenarios? \table[[Price Increase Scenario,Sales Volume,Total Contribution],[(a) Low Price Sensitivity,units,$Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S.Show that if C > S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. riskless profit). You may assume theinterest rate is r = 0 so that present value calculations are unnecessary.Suppose a world has two risky assets: StkC and StkD. The following table shows the holding period returns in each scenario. Suppose the T-bill rate is 3%. Scenario Probability Return for StkC Return for StkD Severe recession 0.03 -40% -12% Mild Recession 0.02 -10% 10% Normal 0.9 10% 6% Mild growth 0.02 20% 8% Boom 0.03 60% -20% Which answer is the closest value to the correlation between StkC and StkD?
- An increase in which of these factors increases the premium of a currency call option? Check all that apply: Spot exchange rate Volatility of the currency Strike price Time to expirationAssume that the risk-free rate, RF, is currently 8%, the market return, RM, is 12%, and asset A has a beta, of 1.10. (could be done on word document or excel). Assume that as a result of recent economic events, inflationary expectations have declined by 3%, lowering RF and RM to 5% and 9%, respectively. Draw the new SML on the axes in part a, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. Assume that as a result of recent events, investors have become more risk averse, causing the market return to rise by 2%, to be14%. Ignoring the shift in part c, draw the new SML on the same set of axes that you used before, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. From the previous changes, what conclusions can be drawn about the impact of (1) decreased inflationary expectations and (2) increased risk aversion on the required returns of risky assets?Assume that the risk-free rate, RF, is currently 8%, the market return, RM, is 12%, and asset A has a beta, of 1.10 a) Draw the security market line (SML) b) Use the CAPM to calculate the required return, on asset A. c) Assume that as a result of recent economic events, inflationary expectations have declined by 3%, lowering RF and RM to 5% and 9%, respectively. Draw the new SML on the axes in part a, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. d) Assume that as a result of recent events, investors have become more risk averse, causing the market return to rise by 2%, to be14%. Ignoring the shift in part c, draw the new SML on the same set of axes that you used before, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. e) From the previous changes, what conclusions can be drawn about the impact of (1) decreased inflationary expectations and (2) increased risk aversion on the required returns of risky assets?
- Assume that the risk-free rate, RF, is currently 8%, the market return, RM, is 12%, and asset A has a beta, of 1.10. (could be done on word document or excel). Draw the security market line (SML) Use the CAPM to calculate the required return, on asset A. Assume that as a result of recent economic events, inflationary expectations have declined by 3%, lowering RF and RM to 5% and 9%, respectively. Draw the new SML on the axes in part a, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. Assume that as a result of recent events, investors have become more risk averse, causing the market return to rise by 2%, to be14%. Ignoring the shift in part c, draw the new SML on the same set of axes that you used before, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. From the previous changes, what conclusions can be drawn about the impact of (1) decreased inflationary expectations and (2) increased risk aversion on the required returns of risky assets?…If the forward rate is expected to be an unbiased estimate of the future spot rate, and interest rate parity holds, then: a. the international Fisher effect (IFE) is refuted. b. the international Fisher effect (IFE) is supported. c. covered interest arbitrage is feasible. d. the average absolute error from forecasting would equal zero.I have been working on the question below and I'm stuck on how to finish it up. I have provided what I've done so far. Is what I've done so far correct? And how do I finish up the problem? Here is the question: Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. risk-less profit). You may assume the interest rate is r=0 so that the present value calculations are unnecessary. My work so far: There is an opportunity for arbitrage if we can create a portfolio that initially (time t=0) generates a zero net cash flow or a cash inflow, but still produce a positive or zero cash inflow at the time of expiration. Assume we are going to short sell one call option C, and buy one stock S. Consider the cash flows at time t=0.Cash flow of selling one call option: +CCash flow of buying one stock: -STherefore, since C>S, we have an initial cash inflow of C-S>0. We will now…
- Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (i.e. risk-less profit). You may assume the interest rate is r=0 so that the present value calculations are unnecessary.Assume that the risk-free rate, RF, is currently 8%, the market return, RM, is 12%, and asset A has a beta, of 1.10. (could be done on word document or excel). a) Draw the security market line (SML) b) Use the CAPM to calculate the required return, on asset A. c) Assume that as a result of recent economic events, inflationary expectations have declined by 3%, lowering RF and RM to 5% and 9%, respectively. Draw the new SML on the axes in part a, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. d) Assume that as a result of recent events, investors have become more risk averse, causing the market return to rise by 2%, to be14%. Ignoring the shift in part c, draw the new SML on the same set of axes that you used before, and calculate and show the new required return for asset A. e) From the previous changes, what conclusions can be drawn about the impact of (1) decreased inflationary expectations and (2) increased risk aversion on the required returns of risky assets?Consider the following information (Assume that Security M and Security N are in the same financial market): Standard Deviation BetaSecurity M 20% 1.25Security N 30% 0.80 Which security should have higher expected return? Group of answer choices Security M Security N Equal