In the futures markets, arbitrageurs are mainly interested in: a. reducing their exposure to risk of price changes. b. increasing market liquidity. c. reducing the spread between the bid and ask prices on bonds. d. attempting to make a profit by taking advantage of price differentials between different markets.
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- Which of the following best describes the Bid-Ask spread in the financial markets? The profit margin a trader expects to make on a sale. The difference between the interest rates of two different currencies. The difference between the price at which one can buy a security (ask) and the price at which one can sell it (bid). The amount by which a bond's yield increases due to an increase in risk.The futures market is referred to as an auction market, whereby producers and suppliers of commodities endeavour to avoid market volatility; in other words, producers and suppliers negotiate contracts with an investor who agrees to take on probable risk and reward, based on the expected volatility of the market. Critically discuss the theoretical concept of futures contracts as a risk management tool, used by any would be investor to decrease future risk exposure or market volatility. What were the main reasons for this fall into the negative realm? Critically discuss. After May 2020, what are the prospects of futures contracts as a significant risk management tool for firms? Discuss critically.Which of the following best describes the terms 'long position' and 'short position' in trading? A long position means expecting the asset's price to rise, and a short position means expecting it to fall. A short position is when a trader borrows an asset to sell, hoping to buy it back at a lower price, while a long position is when a trader buys an asset expecting its price to rise. A long position is when a trader sells an asset immediately, while a short position is holding it for a longer period. A long position indicates selling an asset, while a short position indicates buying it.
- The ability to buy on margin is one advantage of futures. Another is the ease with which one can alter one’s holdings of the asset. This is especially important if one is dealing in commodities, for which the futures market is far more liquid than the spot market.If the yield curve in the bond market shows a flat curve, what do you think about the prediction of the liquidity premium in explaining this phenomenon? Then do you prefer the prediction of expectation theory in explaining this phenomenon?Do derivatives markets give participants the beneficial opportunity to adjust risk exposures to desired levels, generate returns proportional to movements in the underlying and/or simultaneously take long positions in multiple highly liquid fixed-income treasury bonds? Explain why one or more of the options above are correct and explain why, if any of the remaining options are incorrect.
- Unsystematic risk is * a.the risk associated with movements in securities prices B.higher when interest rates rise C.the risk of loss of purchasing power D.reduced through diversificationThe number of futures contracts that a bank will need in order to fully hedge its overall interest rate risk exposure and protect the net worth depends upon (among other factors): the relative duration of bank assets and the duration of the underlying security named in the futures the price of the futures All of the options are correct A financial institution that uses a long hedge is most likely: trying to avoid higher borrowing trying to avoid declining asset trying to avoid lower than expected yields from loans and trying to avoid higher borrowing costs or trying to avoid declining asset An advantage of interest rate swap is that: it can help protect from interest rate it can help closely match the maturities of assets and it can help transform actual cash flows to more closely match desired cash flow All of the options are correct Default risk on bonds can be evaluated by using: financial analysis bond ratings estimates of potential losses on bonds a and b…In contrast to the capital asset pricing model, arbitrage pricing theory:a. Requires that markets be in equilibrium.b. Uses risk premiums based on micro variables.c. Specifies the number and identifies specific factors that determine expected returns.d. Does not require the restrictive assumptions concerning the market portfolio.
- When you have a fixed investment horizon, it is important to maximize your earnings. You must understand the risks and returns of the security and the risk factors that can affect the price of the bond. If an investor has a fixed investment horizon, what type of security can be used to minimize both the price risk and the reinvestment risk? Does this security protect the real payoff? Explain.Which of the following is correct with regards to Theories of Term Structure? When the shape of the yield curve depends on investors’ expectations about prospective prevailing interest rates, the Pure Exception Theory is being applied. When the economic outlook is improving, the yield curve inverts as it reflects no changes in inflation premium. The liquidity preference theory suggests that long-term rates are generally higher than short-term rates since investors perceive more liquidity in long-term investments. Under the Market segmentation theory, there is an apparent relationship between the yield curve and the prevailing rate of returns in each market segment.Which of these statements below are correct? (a) Small arbitrage opportunities may occasionally exist in real markets due to lack of information. (b) If there is an arbitrage opportunity, it means one can make a risk-free profit. (c) Arbitrary investments and arbitrage generating investments are basically the same (d) The no-arbitrage price of a bond is equal to its present value. (e)The law of one price is based on the no-arbitrage assumption.