Let f: A → B be a function and let a ∈ A and b ∈ B. Does this mean it is true that f(a) = b? If not, what would be a counterexample to prove that it is not true?

College Algebra (MindTap Course List)
12th Edition
ISBN:9781305652231
Author:R. David Gustafson, Jeff Hughes
Publisher:R. David Gustafson, Jeff Hughes
Chapter3: Functions
Section3.5: Inverse Functions
Problem 6SC: Find the inverse of f when its domain is restricted to the interval 0,. fx=x2+3
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Let f: A → B be a function and let a ∈ A and b ∈ B. Does this mean it is true that f(a) = b? If not, what would be a counterexample to prove that it is not true? 

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