The Nobel Prize-winning Modigliani & Miller Theory states that a firm’s capital structure does not matter. It is based on three key assumptions: No income taxes Equal borrowing cost- individuals can borrow at the same interest rate as corporations. Perfect markets: There are no bankruptcy, transaction, contracting, or agency costs. Are these assumptions reasonable? What are the implications if the assumptions do not hold?
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The Nobel Prize-winning Modigliani & Miller Theory states that a firm’s capital structure does not matter. It is based on three key assumptions:
- No income taxes
- Equal borrowing cost- individuals can borrow at the same interest rate as corporations.
- Perfect markets: There are no bankruptcy, transaction, contracting, or agency costs.
Are these assumptions reasonable?
What are the implications if the assumptions do not hold?
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- Which of the following statements is correct? a. As Modigliani and Miller made clear in their original work, capital structure does not matter in perfect capital markets. Thus, if capital structure does matter, then it must stem from a market imperfection. b. Because corporations pay taxes on their profits after interest payments are deducted, interest expenses increase the amount of corporate tax firms must pay. c. To determine the loss due the leverage for the value of the firm, we must compute the present value of the stream of future interest tax shields the firm will receive minus the stream of future dividends. d. By increasing the amount paid to debt holders through interest payments, the amount of the pre-tax cash flows that must be paid as taxes increases. e. In general, the gain to lenders from the tax deductibility of interest payments is referred to as the interest tax benefit.The MM irrelevance capital structure theory proved that a firm’s value is unaffected by its capital structure.But their study was based on all of the following strong assumptions excluding: a. There are no brokerage costs. b. There are no corporate taxes and personal taxes. c. There are bankruptcy costs and agency costs. d. There is no asymmetric information problem, and all investors can borrow at the same rate as corporations.According to Modigliani and Miller Proposition II: A. WACC curve is flat and hence no optimal capital structure exists B. WACC curve is upward slopping , indicating the equity financing exclusively being the optimal capital structure of a company C. WACC curve is downward slopping, hence the perfect capital structure is 100% debt D. An optimal capital structure exists as it is the balance between the tax benefit and the bankruptcy costs
- If we drop the assumption that there are no information and transaction costs, in addition to dropping the no-tax assumption, then the Modigliani and Miller model suggests: Companies will not always increase their use of debt. Capital structure has no impact on companies’ value Capital structure has impact on companies’ cost of capital Companies will always increase their use of debt.Which of the following statements is FALSE? As debt increases, the risk associated with bankruptcy and agency costs is reduced. Debt is often the least costly form of financing for a firm. Firms should probably use some debt in their capital structure. Different firms are subject to different levels of risk.Which of the following is not an assumption made by Modigliani and Miller in relation to the independence hypothesis concerning capital structure?a. No taxesb. There are no bankruptcy costsc. Equal borrowing rates for individual and businessesd. There is imperfect informatione. All of the above are assumptions made by Modigliani and Miller under the independence hypothesis
- The Miller’s model proved that a firm’s value is unaffected by its capital structure. But their study was based on some assumptions that: _____ There are no personal taxes. There are no corporate taxes. There are no corporate taxes and personal taxes. There are corporate taxes and personal taxes.Under Modigliani and Miller's assumption of perfect capital markets, which of the following is NOT CORRECT? A) The proper WACC equation under perfect capital markets is the "pre-tax" WACC B) Taxes are irrelevant C) Reducing the debt ratio can cause the cost of debt and the cost of equity to decline, even as the WACC stays the same. D) The WACC does not change as the weights of debt and equity change E) Bankruptcy costs reduce the amount bondholders receive when bankruptcy occursWhich one of the following is NOT an implication of market efficiency for corporate finance? Group of answer choices Firms cannot successfully time issues of debt and equity Firms can successfully time issues of debt and equity Managers cannot fool the market through creative accounting Managers cannot profitably speculate in foreign currencies and other instruments Managers can reap many benefits by paying attention to market prices Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Modigliani-Miller Propositions with corporate taxes? Group of answer choices individuals and corporations borrow at the same rate There are no transaction or bankruptcy costs Corporations are taxed at the rate TC on earnings after interest There are no taxes The cost of equity rises with leverage because the risk to equity rises with leverage _______ specifies an action that the company agrees to take or a condition the company must abide by. Group of answer choices milking the property…
- Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Equity cost of capital is normally higher then cost of debt, thus cost of debt can be examined in isolation. B. No matter if a firm is unlevered or levered, there is no difference in the market value of the firms total securities and market value of the firm’s assets. C. Introducing debt increases the risk even though it may be cheap and consequently increases firms equity cost of capital. D. Cost of Capital of equity and Leverage can be explicitly explained by first proposition that Modigliani and Miller introduced.According to the trade-off theory of capital structure which of the following statements is true (only one is): (a) The optimal capital structure is such that the marginal tax benefits from debt are equal to the marginal costs of bankruptcy. (b) There is no optimal capital structure. (c) More debt is always better as it increases tax shields. (d) More debt is always worse as it increases bankruptcy costs. (e) Retained earnings are the best financing method.Explain Why you agree or disagree with the following statements. The answer should not be more than 3 sentences. Be specific in your answer and write only the most relevant explanations. Treasury bills are riskier than corporate bonds A firm should select the capital structure that is fully unlevered. Leveraged beta represents fundamental financial risk. MM Proposition I with no tax supports the argument that a firm should borrow money to the point where the tax benefit from debt is equal to the cost of the increased probability of financial distress.