What are the reasons why swaps may be useful for the asset mangers Wybierz odpowiedź: O All of the above O Asset managers can get around capital market restrictions O Asset managers can avoid transaction costs O Asset managers can take advantage of off-balance-sheet reporting and favourable tax treatment
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- There are multiple active markets for a financial asset with different observable market prices: Market Quoted Price Transaction Costs 76 5 74 2 There is no principal market for the financial asset. What is the fair value of the asset? 71 72 c. 74 d. 76Examples of when an entity has retained substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of transferred financial asset include A. All of these. B.A sale and repurchase transaction where the repurchase price is a fixed price or the sale price plus a lender's return. C.A sale of a financial asset together with a total return swap that transfers the market risk exposure back to the entity. D.A sale of short-term receivables in which the entity guarantees to compensate the transferee for credit losses that are likely to occur.U.S. GAAP requires firms to expense immediately all internal expenditures for R&D costs. Explain why standard setters have chosen not to allow the capitalization alternative? How would analysts be better served if U.S. GAAP required capitalization of R&D costs?
- According to Capital Asset Pricing theory (CAPM), in a competitive marketplace: Group of answer choices A. only systematic risk is rewarded. B. only diversifiable risk is rewarded. C. all types of risks are rewarded. D. no risk is rewarded.What does it mean to adopt a maturity matching approach to financing assets, includingcurrent assets? How would a more aggressive or a more conservative approach differ fromthe maturity matching approach, and how would each affect expected profits and risk? Ingeneral, is one approach better than the others?KA. -Assume an investment classified as available for sale. Your value of market is less than its amortized cost. Which of the following assertions is correct? a. If management intends to sell the investment, it will recognize all of the impairment loss in the Statement of Income and Expenses. b. If management does not intend to sell the investment and the loss is for credit (credit los), will be recognized in the Statement of Income and Expenses. c. If management does not intend to sell the investment and the loss is not per credit (credit los), it will be recognized in Other comprehensive income . d. All of the above are correct. - Assume an investment in common stock accounted for using the heritage method. The investment will be impaired if: a. Its market value is less than its amortized cost and the loss of value it is not temporary (other than temporary) b. Its market value is less than its book value and the loss of value it is not temporary (other than temporary) c. Its market…
- Whether the following statement is true or wrong. Briefly explain your answer. "It is impossible to have an asset that is risk-free for all investors.” [Hint: Consider the relationship between the investment period of investors and asset maturity, inflation and other factors.)Pierogi Corp is deciding on buying a property for expanding its operation. The acquisition cannotbe afforded with the company’s current financial situation and a highly onerous bank loan may berequired in order to make the purchase possible. Meanwhile, the property proposed anotheroption that will still allow the company the use of the property. The owner is offering the propertyfor lease with a purchase option. In your opinion, which would be a better option?There are several asset pricing models used to determine an asset’s intrinsic value, the most popular being CAPM and APT. Why would an investor apply the Fama-MacBeth Method in asset pricing assumptions?
- 1. Which of the following are potential explanations that have been proposed for the January Effect? Select all that apply. A. Tax loss selling B. IRS wash sale rule C. Psychological drivers, completely unrelated to the market D. Window dressing 2. If a certain asset commands a liquidity premium, what does this imply? A. It has a higher expected return than less liquid similar assets B. It is more sensitive to liquidity shocks than similar assets C. It is more difficult to trade than similar assets D. It has a higher price than less liquid similar assets ' dont copy other's answer, Select all that applyWhy would an investor apply the Fama-MacBeth Method in asset pricing assumptions?Answer the following questions in depth .... Why do accountants have to classify items as capital or revenue expenditures? Why do you treat exchanges of similar and dissimilar assets differently? Aren't they all exchanges? Is it true that the higher the depreciation, the lower the net income? If that is the case, why would we not want the lowest depreciation method so we can show the highest net income? Why do we have various methods of depreciation? Isn't that encouraging misleading results?