Which of the following statement is true? a. Put-call parity holds for American options, just like it does for European options. b. If a European option is priced below its lower bound, then the arbitrage includes borrowing at the risk-free rate. C. If interest rate is positive and the stock pays no dividends then it is better to keep an American call option alive than to exercise it even if it is far in the money. d. It never makes sense to exercise an American put option early.

Which of the following statement is true? a. Put-call parity holds for American options, just like it does for European options. b. If a European option is priced below its lower bound, then the arbitrage includes borrowing at the risk-free rate. C. If interest rate is positive and the stock pays no dividends then it is better to keep an American call option alive than to exercise it even if it is far in the money. d. It never makes sense to exercise an American put option early.

International Financial Management

14th Edition

ISBN:9780357130698

Author:Madura

Publisher:Madura

Chapter12: Managing Economic Exposure And Translation Exposure

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 3IEE

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Part I. Explain why an American call options on futures could be optimally exercised early while call options on the spot can not be optimally exercised. Assume that there is no dividend. Explain how to use call options and put options to create a synthetic short position in stock. Part II. Indicate whether each of the following two statements below is true, false or uncertain and justify your response. It is theoretically impossible for an out-of-money European call and an in-the-money European put to be trading at the same price. Both options are written on the same non-dividend paying stock. A 3-month European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock is currently selling for $3.80. The stock price is $48.0, the strike price is $51, and the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum (continuous compounding). There is no arbitrage opportunity in this scenario.
Under the assumptions of the Black-Scholes model, which value does not affect the price of a European call option: Select one: a. the interest rate r b. the spot price S c. the strike price K d. the return of the stock µ e. the volatility of the stock σ
My question is for a synthetic call option why do we need to borrow the present value of the strike price and what does it mean in a simple language explanation. Similarly why do we need to lend the present value of the stock at risk-free rate and what does it mean in simple language explanation? Please also clarify the significance of risk free rate? Why is it used in put call parity. Synthetic Call Option: If an investor believes that a call option is over-priced, then he/she can sell the call on the market and replicate a synthetic call. Borrow the present value of the strike price at the risk free rate and purchase the underlying stock and a put. Synthetic Put Option: Similar to the synthetic call option. A synthetic put can be created by re-arranging the put-call parity relationship, if the trader believes the put is overvalued. Synthetic Stock: A synthetic stock can also be created by rearranging the put-call parity identity. In this case, the investor will buy the…
Explain why an American call options on futures could be optimally exercised early while call options on the spot can not be optimally exercised. Assume that there is no dividend. Explain how to use call options and put options to create a synthetic short position in stock.
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I asked the question below earlier today, and got a response, but I didn't understand it. I'm sure the response was well written and clear, but I have a very limited background in this area and probably need more of a layman's terms explanation! Thanks. Suppose that C is the price of a European call option to purchase a security whose present price is S. Show that if C>S then there is an opportunity for arbitrage (ie. riskless profit). Assume the interest rate r=0 so present value calculations are unnecessary.