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Why Was Macbeth Murder

Decent Essays

On a dark night Macbeth paced back and forth with the thought of murder going through his mind. It was this night Macbeth and his wife planned on murdering the King, Duncan. After committing the crime he confesses to his wife that it is done, “I have done the deed” (2.2. 14). Macbeth would be charged with first degree murder because of the following reasons. The murder of duncan was premeditated, he showed guilt, and continued to murder. Although he may be llusional now he was not at that state before he committed the murder, once he took action the mental torture began.
To start off, it all started with Macbeth executing the Thane of Cawdor for being a traitor. This showed that Macbeth was loyal and ambitious, which are traits that a good soldier shows, so duncan thought Macbeth should be promoted, “No more that Thane of Cawdor shall deceive Our bosom interest. Go, pronounce his …show more content…

“Methought I heard a voice cry “Sleep no more! Macbeth does murder sleep”—the innocent sleep” ( 2.2. 33-34). Macbeth say innocent sleep and said he heard a voice that told him “sleep no more”, referring that he is no longer innocent (2.2. 33-34). Although his lawyer may mention that he is guilty by reason of insanity, it would not work. The insanity charge in Arizona states “A person may be found guilty except insane if at the time of the commission of the criminal act the person was afflicted with a mental disease or defect of such severity that the person did not know the criminal act was wrong.”, but Macbeth showed hesitation before going through with the murder. With that he showed that he knew the murder was wrong(Ars-13-502). So charging him with first degree murder is more compatible with this case. After the murder was done with Macbeth started hallucinating to the point where he would lash out “Ay, and a bold one, that dare look on that, Which might appall the devil.” (3.4.

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