Discuss the following statement: “The Capital Asset Pricing model (CAPM) has solved all the problems of estimating the relationship between risk and return”.
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Discuss the following statement: “The
model
return”.
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- From the following equation for expected returns, explain what may cause stock prices to decrease in economic recessions: E(r) – risk-free rate = A*Var(r) A is the risk aversion for the average investor, and Var(r) is the variance of the market portfolio. Assume that investor risk aversion is constant.Although its application continues to spark vigorous debate, modern financial theory is now applied as a matter of course to investment management. CAPM, the capital asset pricing model, is a theoretical representation of the behavior of financial markets and can be employed in estimating a company’s cost of equity capital. Despite limitations, the model can be a useful addition to the financial manager’s analytical tool kit. The expanding work on the theory and application of CAPM has produced many sophisticated, often highly complex extensions of the simple model. Discuss the assumptions that the modern financial theory and CAPM rest on. Discuss whether assumptions that they depend on are realistic or unrealistic. Discuss how the concept of risk is defined or calculated in financial theory and CAPM.What do you understand by the term "Risk Free Interest Rate"? How do you rationalize this concept with phenomena characterized by the Government of Barbados’ debt restructuring in 2019?
- What is a Dividend Discount model? What is the main advantage of this model over the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) approaches? ExplainAs it captures the sensitivity the price of a financial asset with respect to the fluctuations of the cost of capital, duration can be thought of as a measure of risk, albeit a conditional one. Coherent risk measures should satisfy four conditions, listed on page 260 of your textbook. Show if and how duration satisfies those four conditionsOrb Trust (Orb) has historically leaned towards a passive management style of its portfolios. The only model that Orb’s senior management has promoted in the past is the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). Now Orb’s management has asked one of its analysts, Kevin McCracken, CFA, toinvestigate the use of the Arbitrage Pricing Theory model (APT).McCracken has determined that a two-factor APT model is adequate where the factors are the sensitivity to changes in real GDP and changes in inflation. McCracken’s analysis has led him to the conclusion that the factor risk premium for real GDP is 8 percent while the factor risk premium for inflation is 2 percent. He estimates for Orb’s High Growth Fund that the sensitivities to these two factors are 1.25 and 1.5 respectively. Using his APT results, he computes the expected return of the fund. For comparison purposes, he then uses fundamental analysis to also computethe expected return of Orb’s High Growth Fund. McCracken finds that the two…
- According to the efficient markets hypothesis,a. changes in stock prices are impossible to predict from publicinformation.b. excessive diversification can reduce an investor's expected portfolioreturns.c. the stock market moves based on the changing animal spirits ofinvestors.d. actively managed mutual funds should give higher returns than indexfunds.Define the term Expected return on a risky asset?Consider the following portfolio choice problem. The investor has initial wealth w and utility u(x) = X^n/n . There is a safe asset (such as a US government bond) that has a net real return of zero. There is also a risky asset with a random net return that has only two possible returns, R1 with probability 1 − q and R0 with probability q. We assume R1 < 0, R0 > 0. Let A be the amount invested in the risky asset, so that w−A is invested in the safe asset. Now find the share of wealth, α, invested in the risky asset. How does α change with wealth?
- Consider the following portfolio choice problem. The investor has initial wealth w and utility u(x) = x^n/n . There is a safe asset (such as a US government bond) that has net real return of zero. There is also a risky asset with a random net return that has only two possible returns, R1 with probability 1 − q and R0 with probability q. We assume R1 < 0, R0 > 0. Let A be the amount invested in the risky asset, so that w − A is invested in the safe asset. 1. What are risk preferences of this investor, are they risk-averse, riskneutral or risk-loving? 2. Find A as a function of w. 3. Does the investor put more or less of his portfolio into the risky asset as his wealth increases? 4. Now find the share of wealth, α, invested in the risky asset. How does α change with wealth? 5. Calculate relative risk aversion for this investor. How does relative risk aversion depend on wealth?Consider the following portfolio choice problem. The investor has initial wealth w and utility u(x) = (x^n)/n . There is a safe asset (such as a US government bond) that has net real return of zero. There is also a risky asset with a random net return that has only two possible returns, R1 with probability 1 − q and R0 with probability q. We assume R1 < 0, R0 > 0. Let A be the amount invested in the risky asset, so that w−A is invested in the safe asset. What are risk preferences of this investor, are they risk-averse, risk- neutral or risk-loving? Find A as a function of w. Does the investor put more or less of his portfolio into the risky asset as his wealth increases?.Effects on shares and financial markets is a macroeconomic issue that was brought about by the impact of COVID-19. What government policy should be implemented to fix this issue?