The Fourier expansion for any (reasonable) function m f(x) = 40 + an (ΐ π) + Σón sin n=1 n=1 Lancos ( (a) Given this expansion, prove that aj = 1 L r+L Y +L C 1 b₁ = dx f(x) sin(a L dx f(x) cos -L (2) L

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