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Asked Nov 18, 2019

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when can a normal distribution be used to approximate a binomial distribution?

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**Introduction to binomial distribution:**

Consider a random experiment involving *n* independent trials, such that the outcome of each trial can be classified as either a “success” or a “failure”. The numerical value “1” is assigned to each success and “0” is assigned to each failure.

Moreover, the probability of getting a success in each trial, *p*, remains a constant for all the *n* trials. Denote the probability of failure as *q*. As success and failure are mutually exclusive...

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