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How Did James I Fail

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The successor to the first queen of England was a man named, James VI of Scotland, who would become James I of England. The British people needed James to be another reforming monarch, but the problem with the Tudors is that they did not have enough money to support their lifestyle. Parliament did not have the money to handle the costs of the government, let alone the Tudors so James devised a plan so he could have complete control. The king had decided that he would tax the British people more heavily than he had before. The British people and Parliament were not content with his decision. Not only did he have divine right now, King James also wanted to create a national church. As he was raised a puritan, he had decided that he would keep his religion …show more content…

He had failed doing this, as the amount of hate received from Ireland, Scotland, and his own people were very displeased. His failure had made him have to call for the one thing he didn’t want, parliament. He needed the money and support that they could provide so he had to let parliament control the government again, as it was with Elizabeth. Charles mistakes had led to a civil war. The country chose sides, and parliament abolished many of the king’s choices. The country was a mess, and would never return to its full state. There was only one man to blame for this mess, and it was King Charles himself. On January 30th 1649 he was executed for being a traitor and for treason. James I and his son Charles I had made the government all about they in a way no other ruler had before. Because they did not have equal say in government or among the British people, England was in turmoil and had no worth to their once profound name. Having equal say could have kept some violent outbursts contained among certain groups of the British people. Equal representation could have controlled not only the citizen’s actions but the king’s actions as

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