Asked Dec 18, 2019

An object is acted on by a single nonzero force of magnitude
F. (a) Is it possible for the object to have zero acceleration a?
(b) Is it possible for the object to have zero angular acceleration
∝? (c) Is it possible for the object to be in mechanical


Expert Answer

Step 1

Part (a):

Force acting on any object can be given by Newton’s second law as follows,


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F = ma where,m = Mass of object a = Acceleration

Step 2

From the above equation of Newton’s second law we can see that when a non-zero force is acting then acceleration of object cannot be zero.

Step 3

Part (b):

Angular acceleration of an...


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(i) T = Ia T = Frsin O (ii) By equation (i) and (ii), Fr sin e α


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