clacher plc and Holmes plc are two firms with identical prospects regarding their future cash flows. The cash flows are expected to remain constant forever into the future. The market assesses the prospects of the two companies and believes that there is a 30% probability that the cash flow will be £20,000 and a 70% probability it will be £40,000. The firms are the same in all respects except for their capital structures. Clacher is entirely financed by equity capital, while Holmes has perpetual riskless debt outstanding with an annual interest payment of £6,000. Clacher’s equity is valued at £200,000. The risk-free rate of return in the economy is 10%. There is no taxation, and there are no agency costs or bankruptcy costs. (a) Assume that both firms are correctly priced by financial markets in accordance with the Modigliani and Miller theorem. What is the expected rate of return on equity for the two firms? (Hint: you will need to calculate the expected cash flow for the firm and use the perpetuity formula). (b) Calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for the two firms. (c) Holmes plc announces that it is going to issue additional perpetual debt, with promised interest payments of £1,200. The funds generated will be used to make a one-off payment to equity holders and there will be no other impact on expected cash flows. Calculate the value of Holmes’ equity after the transaction described above has been undertaken. (d) What are the reasons why debt capital in a firm typically has a lower cost of capital than does equity capital in the same firm? (e) Discuss the view that capital structure is irrelevant to firm value
clacher plc and Holmes plc are two firms with identical prospects regarding their future cash flows. The cash flows are expected to remain constant forever into the future. The market assesses the prospects of the two companies and believes that there is a 30% probability that the cash flow will be £20,000 and a 70% probability it will be £40,000.
The firms are the same in all respects except for their capital structures. Clacher is entirely financed by equity capital, while Holmes has perpetual riskless debt outstanding with an annual interest payment of £6,000. Clacher’s equity is valued at £200,000. The risk-free
(a) Assume that both firms are correctly priced by financial markets in accordance with the Modigliani and Miller theorem. What is the expected rate of
(Hint: you will need to calculate the expected cash flow for the firm and use the perpetuity formula).
(b) Calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for the two firms.
(c) Holmes plc announces that it is going to issue additional perpetual debt, with promised interest payments of £1,200. The funds generated will be used to make a one-off payment to equity holders and there will be no other impact on expected cash flows. Calculate the value of Holmes’ equity after the transaction described above has been undertaken.
(d) What are the reasons why debt capital in a firm typically has a lower cost of capital than does equity capital in the same firm?
(e) Discuss the view that capital structure is irrelevant to firm value.
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