PSY-2410-Unit-3-Practice-Exam

Intro to Clinical Psychology Unit 3 Practice Exam (Chapter 6-9, 10 & 15) Roomal Seferaj 1. Question: Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment (ASEBA) Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment (ASEBA)? • A): To evaluate academic performance in children and adults. • B): To assess adaptive and maladaptive functioning in children and adults. • C): To provide a diagnostic tool for specific psychological disorders. • D): To measure intelligence levels across various age groups. 2. Question: Smoking: Apart from lung diseases, what other health risks are associated with smoking that pose a significant threat to overall health and well-being? • A: Increased risk of cancer in various organs such as bladder, kidney, stomach, etc. • B: Impaired immune system function leading to higher susceptibility to infections • C: Accelerated aging process due to oxidative stress and premature death • D: Negatively impacted cognitive function and memory 3. Question: Outcome Questionnaire 45 (OQ-45) The Outcome Questionnaire 45 (OQ-45) is utilized to: • A): Predict the future outcomes of therapy sessions. • B): Track patient progress and assess therapy outcomes related to symptoms, interpersonal relationships, and social roles. • C): Measure the effectiveness of medication in psychiatric treatments. • D): Evaluate the severity of depression in adults. 4. Question: Children’s Depression Inventory (CDI) The Children’s Depression Inventory (CDI) is designed to: • A): Evaluate academic stress and its impact on children’s mental health. • B): Assess symptoms of depression in children through a self-report questionnaire. • C): Diagnose bipolar disorder in the pediatric population. • D): Measure children’s resilience and coping strategies. 5. Question: Rorschach Inkblot Test The Rorschach Inkblot Test is utilized to: • A): Measure intellectual abilities and aptitude in individuals. • B): Assess various aspects of a person’s personality and emotional functioning through their interpreta- tions of inkblots. • C): Evaluate a person’s perceptual organization skills. • D): Diagnose specific psychological disorders based on response patterns. 6. Question: Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) What is the primary focus of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)? • A): To measure the intelligence quotient of an individual. • B): To assess social and interpersonal dynamics through story completion tasks. • C): To understand a person’s inner thoughts and feelings through stories they create about ambiguous pictures. • D): To evaluate memory recall ability through visual stimuli. 1

7. Question: Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) Which statement best describes Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)? • A): CBT is a passive therapeutic approach that primarily focuses on discussing past traumas. • B): CBT emphasizes the role of thoughts and behaviors in psychological problems and focuses on altering these to improve functioning. • C): CBT is a medication-based treatment for psychological disorders. • D): CBT involves the use of art and music to express emotions and resolve psychological issues. 8. Question: Computer-Based Treatment Computer-Based Treatment in psychology is characterized by: • A): Direct face-to-face interactions between a therapist and a client using digital devices. • B): Psychological interventions delivered via computer programs, typically based on evidence-based treatment principles. • C): The use of virtual reality to simulate real-life situations for therapeutic purposes. • D): Computerized brain training exercises aimed at improving cognitive functions. 9. Question: Interpersonal Therapy Interpersonal Therapy (IPT) emphasizes: • A): The unconscious mind and early childhood experiences. • B): The importance of neurotransmitter levels in managing psychological problems. • C): Interpersonal elements in the development, maintenance, and alteration of psychological problems. • D): The significance of individual behaviors and thought patterns in social interactions. 10. Question: Process-Experiential Therapy Process-Experiential Therapy focuses on: • A): The client’s cognitive abilities to solve their own problems. • B): The importance of understanding and expressing emotions, and transforming maladaptive emotions to adaptive ones. • C): The development of personal coping strategies through experiential learning. • D): The client’s past experiences and their impact on current behavior. 11. Question: Self-Administered Treatment Which of the following best describes Self-Administered Treat- ment in the context of mental health? • A): Treatments that involve frequent, direct sessions with a mental health professional. • B): Psychotherapeutic treatments that are primarily medication-based and managed by the client. • C): Treatments that the client undertakes without direct input from a mental health professional. • D): Group therapy sessions that clients attend without professional supervision. 12. Question: Self-Efficacy Self-Efficacy refers to: • A): A clinical measurement of self-esteem and confidence in social settings. • B): A person’s belief in their own competence to learn and successfully perform new tasks. • C): The ability to influence others and assert oneself in a group. • D): The self-assessment of one’s intelligence and cognitive abilities. 13. Question: Short-Term Psychodynamic Therapy Short-Term Psychodynamic Therapy is characterized by: • A): A focus on changing clients’ behavior through reinforcement and punishment. • B): The use of mindfulness and acceptance strategies to address psychological issues. • C): Emphasizing awareness of unconscious processes, particularly as expressed in interpersonal relation- ships, to understand and alter these processes. • D): Providing solutions to problems in a brief time frame using cognitive-behavioral techniques. 14. Question: Stepped Care Stepped Care in mental health service delivery implies: • A): A hierarchical approach where more intensive and costly interventions are provided first. • B): Offering lower-cost interventions initially, progressing to more intensive options only if necessary. 2

• C): A uniform treatment approach where all clients receive the same level of care regardless of their condition. • D): Providing step-by-step instructions for self-help and personal improvement to clients. 15. Question: Telehealth Which of the following best describes Telehealth in the context of psychological services? • A): The exclusive use of email communication between therapists and clients for delivering therapy. • B): The delivery of health care services via traditional mail correspondence. • C): The provision of health care services through telephone, videoconferencing, or computer-mediated communications. • D): A method of therapy that involves face-to-face sessions conducted in an outdoor setting. 16. Question: Transference Transference refers to: • A): The transfer of learned skills from the therapist to the client. • B): The unconscious application of expectations and emotional experiences from early relationships to later interpersonal relationships. • C): The conscious decision to mimic behaviors observed in significant others. • D): The physical relocation of a client to a different therapeutic setting to enhance treatment outcomes. 17. Question: Community Psychology Community Psychology focuses on: • A): The study of individual psychological issues without considering the community context. • B): The examination of community structures and their impact on individual psychological well-being. • C): The reciprocal relations between individuals and the communities in which they live, emphasizing community well-being and individual-community interactions. • D): The development of individual coping strategies in isolation from community influences. 18. Question: Health Promotion Health Promotion programs are primarily designed to: • A): Provide immediate treatment to individuals with acute health conditions. • B): Increase activities beneficial to various aspects of physical health through community-based initia- tives. • C): Offer one-on-one counseling services for mental health issues. • D): Conduct research on the genetic bases of diseases. 19. Question: Incidence Rates In the context of epidemiology, Incidence Rates refer to: • A): The total number of cases of a specific problem in a given population at a particular time. • B): The number of new cases of a specific problem within a defined population over a certain period of time. • C): The rate at which individuals recover from a disease within a population. • D): The proportion of individuals in a population who have been exposed to a particular condition. 20. Question: Indicated Preventive Interventions Indicated Preventive Interventions target: • A): The general population, regardless of risk level for a specific disorder. • B): Individuals who have been diagnosed with a disorder, to prevent relapse. • C): People who do not meet criteria for a disorder but have elevated risk and may show detectable, subclinical signs of the disorder. • D): Groups identified as having a lower than average risk of developing a particular disorder, as a form of resilience building. 21. Question: Number Needed To Treat (NNT) The Number Needed To Treat (NNT) is a statistical measure used to: • A): Determine the average duration of treatment required for one individual to recover. • B): Calculate the number of therapy sessions needed for significant improvement in symptoms. • C): Assess the number of people who need to receive an intervention to prevent one person from developing a condition. 3

• D): Estimate the number of professionals required to treat a specific population effectively. 22. Question: Protective Factors Protective Factors are best described as: • A): Variables that increase the likelihood of developing a disorder. • B): Characteristics of individuals or their environments that make them more susceptible to disease. • C): Elements within individuals or their environments that make them less vulnerable to developing problems or disorders. • D): The biological markers that predict the onset of a disease. 23. Question: Risk Factors Risk Factors are: • A): Traits that provide immunity against psychological disorders. • B): Characteristics associated with a decreased likelihood of developing a disease or disorder. • C): Elements that make a person more vulnerable to developing a problem or disorder or that are associated with more severe symptoms. • D): The statistical probabilities that an individual will recover from an illness without any intervention. 24. Question: Dietary choices: Which specific dietary habits contribute most significantly to increased risks of chronic diseases such as obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular diseases? • A: High intake of processed foods and added sugars • B: Low intake of fruits and vegetables • C: Excessive consumption of saturated fats and red meat • D: Habitual skipping of meals 25. Question: Symptom Checklist-90-Revised (SCL-90-R) The Symptom Checklist-90-Revised (SCL-90-R) is primarily designed for: • A): Assessing personality traits through self-report. • B): Measuring psychological symptoms across nine primary dimensions. • C): Evaluating cognitive abilities and deficits. • D): Diagnosing mental health disorders based on DSM criteria. 26. Question: How can physical activity levels be boosted beyond conventional exercise, particularly for individuals with sedentary lifestyles? • A: Integrate additional movement into daily activities, like opting for stairs over elevators or implementing walking meetings. • B: Embrace standing desks or treadmill workstations to minimize prolonged sitting periods. • C: Participate in pursuits encouraging incidental exercise, such as gardening, dancing, or household chores. • D: Promote the adoption of active transportation modes, like cycling or walking, in lieu of driving automobiles. 27. Question: What constitutes excessive alcohol intake, and what are the short-term and long-term health hazards linked to it? • A: Excessive alcohol consumption is defined as more than one drink per day for women and more than two drinks per day for men. • B: Immediate risks encompass impaired judgment, slurred speech, and loss of coordination, while long-term dangers include liver damage, hypertension, and an elevated cancer risk. • C: Short-term perils involve heightened risk-taking behavior, compromised decision-making abilities, and blackouts, while long-term consequences span alcohol dependency, cognitive decline, and mental health ailments like depression and anxiety. • D: Near-term hazards entail decreased inhibitions, impaired memory retention, and an increased likelihood of partaking in risky actions such as unprotected sex and driving while intoxicated. Long- lasting risks encompass damage to the central nervous system and an elevated probability of developing specific cancers. 4

28. Question: Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II) Which of the following is true about the Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II)? • A): It is primarily used to diagnose depression in children. • B): It measures the severity of depression in adolescents and adults through a self-report questionnaire. • C): It is a projective test to uncover unconscious thoughts associated with depression. • D): It assesses cognitive distortions related to depressive symptoms. 29. Question: How can individuals enhance their sleep routines to mitigate risks linked to chronic diseases? • A: Establishing regular sleep patterns, adhering to consistent bedtimes and wake-up times daily. • B: Cultivating a tranquil sleep setting by reducing noise, light, and electronic device usage before bedtime. • C: Restricting daytime naps, particularly for older adults, as they may disrupt nighttime sleep. • D: Effectively managing stress levels via relaxation methods like meditation or deep breathing exercises to enhance sleep quality. 30. Question: Among the listed behavioral risk factors for heart disease, which is most amenable to modification through lifestyle changes? • A: Smoking/vaping • B: High sodium or fat diet • C: Sedentary lifestyle and lack of physical activity • D: None of the above, as all behaviors contribute equally to the development of heart disease. 31. Question: Primary Prevention Primary Prevention in public health is aimed at: • A): Providing early treatment to individuals showing the first signs of a disease. • B): The provision of conditions conducive to good health and the prevention of diseases before they occur. • C): Targeting individuals at high risk of a disease for intensive interventions. • D): The rehabilitation of individuals with chronic conditions to prevent complications. 32. Question: Which hazardous driving conduct is explicitly cited in the provided text as a major contributor to motor vehicle accidents? • A: Texting while driving • B: Speeding • C: Drunk driving (DUI) • D: Reckless driving without any specific behavior mentioned. 33. Question: According to the CDC’s report on causes of death in 2017, which lifestyle factor is most frequently associated with heart disease? • A: Poor diet • B: Lack of exercise • C: Smoking • D: Excessive alcohol consumption 34. Question: In Chapter 10, what category of strategies is employed in clinical psychology and public health to avert the onset of diseases and disorders before their occurrence? • A: Rehabilitation programs for individuals already diagnosed with a condition • B: Treatment plans for managing symptoms • C: Strategies focused on lifestyle changes and addressing modifiable factors • D: Medication as a primary prevention method 35. Question: Referencing the CDC report, which of the following conditions is not emphasized as an area where preventive measures can substantially influence outcomes? • A: Heart Disease 5