bio 226 final 3
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Course
226
Subject
Biology
Date
Dec 6, 2023
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25
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Bio 226 Final Exam
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1.
A farmer in Kansas and a farmer in California each
plant an acre of the same kind of corn. Because the
environment differs for each field, how will this affect
the height of their corn?
a. the average height of the corn could differ between
fields
b. the variation in the height of the corn in each field
could differ between fields
c. the color and see shape of the corn could differ
between fields
d. both the average height of the corn and the variation
in corn height within each field could differ between
fields
e. average height, variation in height, seed color, and
seed shape could all differ between fields
d. both the aver-
age height of the
corn and the varia-
tion in corn height
within each field
could differ be-
tween fields
2.
The concordance among identical twins for epilepsy
is 37% and for fraternal twins 19%. From this informa-
tion, we can conclude that:
a. epilepsy has only a minor genetic component
b. epilepsy has an important genetic component
c. epilepsy has both and important genetic compo-
nent and an important environmental component
d. lifestyle and other environmental factors play an
important role in epilepsy
e. epilepsy has only a minor genetic component, while
lifestyle and other environmental factors play and im-
portant role
c. epilepsy has
both and impor-
tant genetic com-
ponent and an
important environ-
mental component
3.
The phenotype of an individual results from an inter-
action between:
a. genotype & mutation rate
b. genotype & the environment
c. allele frequency & mutation rate
d. allele frequency & genotype
e. allele frequency & the environment
b. genotype & the
environment
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4.
If eight allele for a gene exist in a population, what is
the maximum number of allele copies for that gene an
unaffected diploid individual is expected to have?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
a. 2
5.
Why do data on observable mutant phenotypes under-
estimate that actual frequency of mutation?
a. many mutations are in non-coding regions of the
genome
b. some mutations in protein coding regions of the
genome are synonymous or silent mutations
c. most mutations result in death of the individual or
and inability to reproduce
d. a & b are correct
e. all of the above are correct
d. a & b are correct
6.
In humans, ability to roll the tongue (R) is dominant
to being unable to roll the tongue (r). Having freckles
(F) is dominant to having no freckles (f). A freckled
tongue-roller could have which of the following geno-
types?
a. RRFF
b. RrFf
c. rrFF
d. both RRFF & RrFr are correct
e. all of the options are correct
d. both RRFF &
RrFr are correct
7.
Consider Mendels experiments involving the trait
around versus wrinkled peas. In some experiments,
Mendels method involved removing the anthers that
produce pollen from the flowers of the round peas and
applying pollen from the anthers of the wrinkled plant.
b. the F1 peas pro-
duced would have
a single pheno-
type
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What would have happened if Mendel had missed
some anthers he was trying to remove from the flow-
ers of the plants that produce only round peas, and
observed the peas produced by a plant that had a mix
of round and wrinkled pollen. (Indicate which of the
following must be true)
a. the F1 peas produced would have mixed pheno-
types
b. the F1 peas produced would have a single pheno-
type
c. the F2 peas would have phenotypes in a 9:3:3:1 ratio
d. the F2 peas would all have the phenotype of the
parental plant with the anthers not properly removed
e. the F1 peas would have phenotypes in a 1:1 ratio
8.
According to Mendel's work, a heterozygous plant
with alleles Aa will produce:
a. gametes with only the A allele
b. gametes with only the a allele
c. gametes containing both the A allele and the a allele
d. 50% of the gametes with the A allele and 50% of the
gametes with the a allele, on average
e. some gametes with the A allele and some with the
a allele, but no predictable ratio
d. 50% of the ga-
metes with the A
allele and 50% of
the gametes with
the a allele, on av-
erage
9.
If you crossed two heterozygous yellow seed pea
plant (genotypes Aa):
a. the relative frequency of the a allele in each parents
gametes would be 1/2
b. the relative frequency of the A allele in each parents
gametes would be 1/2
c. the relative frequency of green seed plants (geno-
type aa) would be 1/4
d. the relative frequency of homozygous yellow seed
plants (genotype AA) would be 1/4
e. all of the answer options are true
e. all of the answer
options are true
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10.
In pea plants, flowers are either white or purple; the
purple color is produced by pigment called antho-
cyanins. The production of anthocyanins is a two step
process the first is controlled by the C gene and the
second by the P gene both genes must be produced
functional proteins for anthocyanin to be produced.
For each gene, the dominant (C and P) alleles produce
functional proteins. You cross two pea plants, each
with the genotype CcPp. What proportion of their off-
spring will have purple flowers?
a. 13/16
b. 9/16
c. 7/16
d. 3/4
e. 1/4
b. 9/16
11.
Human ABO blood groups are determined by a single
gene with 3 alleles: A, B, and O. IN a sample of 300
individuals, 100 are blood type A and genotype AA,
100 are blood type B and genotype BO, and 100 are
blood type O and genotype OO. What are the allele
frequencies?
a. 25% A, 25% B, 50% O
b. 50% A, 25% B, 25% O
c. 33.3% A, 33.3% B, 33.3% O
d. 33.35 A, 33.3% B, 66.6 % O
e. 33.3% A, 16.6% B, 50% O
e. 33.3% A, 16.6%
B, 50% O
12.
In a population with two alleles, A and a, the fre-
quency of a is 0.6. What would be the frequency of
heterozygotes if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium?
a. 0.48
b. 0.64
c. 0.16
a. 0.48
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d. 0.36
e. 0.40
13.
Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled
by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for
orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous
for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous off-
spring, all of which have pale, light orange beaks.
This latter of coot expression is most likely to be an
example of:
a. codominance
b. incomplete dominance
c. pleiotrophy
d. polygenic inheritance
e. epistasis
b. incomplete
dominance
14.
Any genetic difference among individuals sufficiently
common to be found in a random sample of 50 indi-
viduals
polymorphism
15.
Any mating of an unknown genotype with a homozy-
gous recessive genotype
test cross
16.
This describes genes that are sufficiently close to-
gether on the same chromosome that they are gener-
ally inherited together
linked genes
17.
A complex trait in which the phenotype is measured
along a continuum with only small intervals between
similar individuals
quantitative
18.
This describes all the alleles present in all the individ-
uals in a population
gene pool
19.
Male Australian bowerbirds build and decorate elab-
orate structures, called bowers, out of grasses and
other vegetation. If we want to understand the physi-
ological mechanism behind this behavior, we want to
understand its:
a. causation
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a. causation
b. development
c. adaptive function
d. evolutionary history
e. causation & development
20.
A newly mates queen ant establishes an ant nest in an
unoccupied path of suitable habitat. Assuming that no
disasters strike the nest, which of the following types
of equation will best describe its population growth
over time?
a. linear
b. quadratic
c. logarithmic
d. logistic
e.exponential
d. logistic
21.
What is the age structure of a population?
a. the curve that results when the likelihood of dying
is plotted as a function of age
b. the curve that results when the likelihood of being
alive is plotted as a function of age
c. proportion of individuals in different age groups
d. the different in the age distribution of a population
at two definite points in time
e. the structure of a population at different points on
its growth curve
c. proportion of in-
dividuals in differ-
ent age groups
22.
We would expect that the patter of dispersion for a
population of desert plants that are limited by access
to water to be _______________.
a. absolute
b. clumped
c. homogenous
e. uniform
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d. random
e. uniform
23.
You are surveying biodiversity on a new island chain.
You have counted the number of bird species on one
island already. The next island is larger and closer to
the mainland than the one you have just surveyed.
According to the theory of island biogeography, the
total number of its bird species should be _____ than
on the first island because the rate of immigration to
the second island should be ______ and the rate if
extinction should be _______.
a. greater (larger); lower; higher
b. greater (larger); higher; lower
c. lower (smaller); higher; lower
d. lower (smaller); lower; higher
e. none of the above
b. greater (larger);
higher; lower
24.
Which of the following is an example of a population?
a. all of the microorganisms on your skin
b. all of the species of cichlid fish in Lake Victoria
c. all of the students in your classroom
d. all studnets attending colleges and universities in
your state
e. the various plants found in prairies in the western
united states
c. all of the
students in your
classroom
25.
When a nipple is placed in a newborn baby's mouth,
the infant will immediately begin to suckle. This is an
example of:
a. habituation
b. imprinting behavior
c. classical conditioning
d. innate behavior
e. imitation
d. innate behavior
26.
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This is the maximum rate of population growth when
no environmental factors limit the population
intrinsic growth
rate
27.
This is a species that produces large numbers of off-
spring, but provided them few resources
r-strategists
28.
________________ is a type of associative learning
in which a undirected novel behavior has become
parked with a stimulus through reinforcement
Operant condition-
ing
29.
________________ is a simple cue stimulating a fixed
action
key stimulus
30.
A researcher synthesizes a new drug that specifically
targets and degrade peptidoglycan. What type of in-
fection could this drug treat?
a. infections caused by archaea
b. infections caused by bacteria
c. infections caused by viruses
d. infections caused by eukaryotes
e. both a and b are correct
b. infections
caused by bacte-
ria
31.
A bacterium living in an underground septic tank
thrones by absorbing organic compounds from de-
composing wastes. What is it?
a. a chemo-heterotroph
b. a chemo-autotroph
c. a photo-hetertroph
d. a photo-autotroph
e. a hemotroph
a. a chemo-het-
erotroph
32.
Miller-Urey-type experiments have shown that
a. simple cells could be produced in the lab using a
"soup" of small organic molecules
b. living cells could survive in primitive Earth's atmos-
phere
c. microspheres could be formed from amino acids
d. organic mole-
cules can be pro-
duced by physical
processes from in-
organic compo-
nents
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d. organic molecules can be produced by physical
processes from inorganic components
e. given the conditions of early Earth, the formation
of life would still require additional materials from
meteorites and asteroids
33.
Undifferentiated cells of plants are most likely to be
present in which of the flowing tissues?
a. leaves
b. transport systems (xylem & phloem)
c. root tips
d. flowers
e. all of the above
c. root tips
34.
Gastrulation in animal cells is able to take place be-
cause:
a. animal cells do not have cell walls
b. mitosis stops so that cells are able to move around
c. cells in the meristem are able to migrate
d. complex regulatory genes are suppressed during
animal development
e. both a and c are correct
a. animal cells do
not have cell walls
35.
According to current scientific thinking, true multicel-
lular organisms
a. are all descended from a single colonial protist
ancestor
b. formed through the fusion of several separate
species of unicellular protests, who carried out dif-
ferent complementary functions within the evolving
organism
c. descend from several different kinds of unicellular
protists, which became multicellular through special-
ization and cooperation among cells within a colony
d. include only animals
e. cannot be traced to any existing or fossil intermedi-
c. descend from
several different
kinds of unicellu-
lar protists, which
became multicel-
lular through spe-
cialization and co-
operation among
cells within a
colony
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ate stages; this there is no current scientific theory for
the process that generated multicellular organisms
from unicellular ancestors
36.
Which three groups of protists all produce hard miner-
alized skeletal structures or cell walls that contribute
to marine sediments and form fossils?
a. green algae, brown algae, and diatoms
b. diatoms, foraminiferans, and radiolarians
c. dinoflagellates, diatoms, and green algae
d. diplomonads, radiolarians, and apicomplexans
e. amoebas, tryanosomes, and apicomplexans
b. di-
atoms, foraminifer-
ans, and radiolari-
ans
37.
Which of the following is the BEST explanation for
why bryophytes and ferns require water for fertiliza-
tion?
a. their aquatic ancestors relied on water for gamete
dispersal
b. they live in areas where water is plentiful
c. water is a better medium for transport than air
d. Bryophyte gametes are too heavy for dispersal in
air
e. water protects gametes from UV radiation
a. their aquatic an-
cestors relied on
water for gamete
dispersal
38.
Which of the following correctly describes the "moss"
we see when walking in the woods?
a. the diploid sporophyte
b. the haploid sporophyte
c. the diploid gametophyte
d. the haploid gametophyte
e. both b and c are correct
d. the haploid ga-
metophyte
39.
Many flower traits are specifically attractive to a cer-
tain type of pollinator. For example, the scent of rot-
ting flesh is attractive to certain flies and beetles, but
not to most other pollinators. What adaptive purpose
is served by this kind of "niche marketing" of flowers
e. this adaptation
helps to assure
that pollen will be
delivered to an-
other flower of
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to specific pollinators?
a. this adaptation works to reduce pollinator traffic at
a flower, therefore flowers do not have to produce as
much nectar to feed big crows of pollinators
b. this adaptation reduced pollinator traffic so that
flowers have a chance to develop their pollen fuller
before it is spread
c. this targeting is done because the wrong kind of
pollinator might eat all the pollen instead of delivering
it to another flower
d. this is favored by natural selection because other-
wise certain pollinators would starve and die, specific
flowers evolve to give these pollinators a steady, re-
served food source to help them survive
e. this adaptation helps to assure that pollen will be
delivered to another flower of the same species, if less
specialized pollinators are used the odds are greater
that pollen will wind up on the stigma of a different
species
the same species,
if less special-
ized pollinators are
used the odds are
greater that pollen
will wind up on the
stigma of a differ-
ent species
40.
Which one of the following enabled eukaryotes to
evolve complex life cycles and programs of multicel-
lular development?
a. binary fission
b. complex patterns of gene regulation
c. a dynamic cytoskeleton
d. sexual reproduction
e. all of the above
b. complex pat-
terns of gene reg-
ulation
41.
To which super kingdom do humans belong?
a. archaeplastida
b. alveolata
c. excavata
d. opisthokonta
e. rhizaria
d. opisthokonta
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42.
Which of the following options list major events in
the history of life on Earth in the proper order, from
earliest to most recent?
a. first prokaryotes; photosynthesis; colonization of
land by plants and fungi; first eukaryotes
b. first eukaryotes; photosynthesis; colonization of
land by plants and fungi; first prokaryotes
c. first prokaryotes; first eukaryotes; photosynthesis;
colonization of land by plants and fungi
d. first prokaryotes; photosynthesis; first eukaryotes;
colonization of land by plants and fungi
e. photosynthesis; first prokaryotes; first eukaryotes;
colonization of land by plants and fungi
d. first prokary-
otes; photosynthe-
sis; first eukary-
otes; colonization
of land by plants
and fungi
43.
This is a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer in
prokaryotes by means of viruses
transduction
44.
In bacteria, these are the extra-nuclear circular DNA
carrying a small number of genes that can replicate
independently of the genomic DNA
plasmids
45.
This is a plant structure in which thousands of cells
undergo meiosis, producing large numbers of haploid
cells
sporangium
46.
This term describes giant cells with many nuclei,
where nuclear division occurs without partitioning
into individual cells
coenocytic
47.
This described a many celled organism where cells
adhere together, but there is little communication or
sharing of resources between cells and little differen-
tiation into specialized cells
simple multi-cellu-
larity
48.
A young graduate student is trying to identify new
species of bacteria based on the criteria of biological
species concept. She is having a lot of trouble with
this method, and then suddenly realizes that she can't
use this definition of a species when it comes to
e. both a and c are
potentially correct
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bacteria. Why?
a. DNA can be passed down between bacteria of dif-
ferent species via horizontal gene transfer
b. DNA is never passed between bacteria of a different
species
c. bacteria do not reproduce sexually and/or do not
undergo meiosis
d. bacteria form pill and, as a result, reproduce asex-
ually
e. both a and c are potentially correct
49.
A researcher discovers a new unicellular organism
that contains a single circular chromosome and no
membrane bound organelles, upon closer observa-
tion the researcher notices that this organism can
also fix nitrogen AND produce methane. How should
this organism be classified?
a. as a bacterium
b. as a archaeon
c. as a eukaryote
d. it is not possible to classify the organism based on
this information
b. as a archaeon
50.
Which one of the following correctly lists features of
eukaryotic cells that distinguish them from prokaryot-
ic cells?
a. a dynamic cytoskeleton, dynamic system of mem-
branes, relatively limited metabolic capabilities
b. a dynamic cytoskeleton, dynamic systen of mem-
branes, flexible, wide ranging metabolic capabilities
c. a dynamic cytoskeleton that permits cellular move-
ment, the ability to carry out photosynthesis, and the
ability to switch from haploid to diploid stages in their
life cycle
d. both a and c are correct
e. all of the above are correct
a. a dynamic
cytoskeleton, dy-
namic system of
membranes, rela-
tively limited meta-
bolic capabilities
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51.
To which super kingdom do ancestors of land plants
belong?
a. archaeplastida
b. alveolata
c. excavata
d. opisthokonta
e. rhizaria
a. archaeplastida
52.
Which of the following features would you expect to
see in the flowers of wind pollinated grasses?
a. very large, fragrant, white flowers
b. petals with UV-absorbing "nectar guides"
c. very simple flowers that produce massive quanti-
ties of pollen
d. red flowers with long nectar tubes
e. flowers that smell and look like rotting flesh
c. very simple flow-
ers that produce
massive quantities
of pollen
53.
The theory of endosymbiosis explains:
a. the reason for the human biome
b. the mutually beneficial relationship between two
organisms, both of which are capable of living inde-
pendently
c. how bacteria came to inhabit the human intestine
d. the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts
e. both b and d are correct
d. the origin of
mitochondria and
chloroplasts
54.
Which of the following organisms has a dominant
sporophyte generation and a free living gametophyte
generation?
a. moss
b. fern
c. basidiomycete
d. conifer
e. angiosperm
b. fern
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55.
Which type of reproduction is typical in many fungi,
particularly fast growing molds and yeast?
a. sexual reproduction through mating of two diploid
parent mycelia
b. sexual reproduction through fusion of two hap-
loid parent mycelia and direct production of haploid
spores
c. asexual reproduction through production of haploid
spores by diploid parent
d. asexual reproduction through production of hap-
loid spores by a haploid parent
e. asexual reproduction through production of diploid
spores by a haploid parent
d. asexual repro-
duction through
production of hap-
loid spores by a
haploid parent
56.
The ___________ is a flagellated cell that sweeps wa-
ter through a sponge's body and is similar to the likely
protist ancestor of all animal life
a. choanocyte
b. amoebocyte
c. spicule
d. spongin
e. sessile body
a. choanocyte
57.
You find a wormlike soft bodied adult animal in a mud
flat, it is bilaterally symmetrical, is segmented, has
a true coelom, and has a complete digestive tract.
Based on these characteristics what phylum does the
animal represent?
a. mollusca
b. platyhelminthes
c. arthropoda
d. nematoda
e. annelida
e. annelida
58.
Which one of the following is a characteristic of com-
plex multicellular organisms, but not of simple multi-
e. all of the above
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cellular organisms?
a. the functional specialization of subsets of cells in
the organism
b. the use of cell adhesion molecules to allow cells to
adhere to one another
c. the presence of a single cell with multiple nuclei
d. the presence of cells that are not in direct contact
with the external environment
e. all of the above
59.
How are nutrients transported through fungi?
a. through hyphae, as a result of turgor pressure
b. through sieve tubes, as a result of turgor pressure
c. through vessel elements, as a result of turgor pres-
sure
d. through hyphae, as a result of capillary action
e. through sieve tubes, as a result of capillary action
a. through hyphae,
as a result of tur-
gor pressure
60.
When plasmogamy occurs in two compatible mating
types of fungi, a dikaryotic cell is formed in the hy-
phae. For some groups of fungi, only one or a few
cells are dikaryotic. In the other groups of fungi, a
majority of the cells that make up the fungal hyphae
are dikaryotic. What might be an advantage of having
dikaryotic hyphae?
a. dikaryotic hyphae have more uncle and there can be
higher rates of transcription and translation and more
digestive enzymes made by each cell
b. dikaryotic hyphae are able to divide more rapidly
than hyphae with only one nuclei
c. karyogamy can occur in more than one cell and
more fruiting bodes can be produced, increasing the
number of spores produced through sexual recombi-
nation
d. karyogamy can occur more rapidly when a dikary-
c. karyogamy can
occur in more than
one cell and more
fruiting bodes can
be produced, in-
creasing the num-
ber of spores
produced through
sexual recombina-
tion
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otic hypha finds an alternative mating type
e. all of the above
61.
Which of the following statements is true regarding
the parasexual cycle demonstrated by some fungi?
a. it involves mitotic recombination
b. it involves meiotic recombination
c. chromosomes are lost until haploid (1n) cells are
achieved
d. a and c are correct
e. all of the above are correct
d. a and c are cor-
rect
62.
Which of the following statements about deuteros-
tomes is true
a. deuterostomes lack true tissues
b. deuterostomes have only two tissue layers
c. the opening that forms during deuterostome gas-
trulation becomes the anus
d. the opening that forms during deuterostome gas-
trulation becomes the mouth
e. deuterostomes always lack a body cavity
d. the opening
that forms dur-
ing deuterostome
gastrulation be-
comes the mouth
63.
Why was the advent of the amniotic egg so important
in the evolution of terrestrial vertebrates?
a. it made internal fertilization more likely, so it in-
creased individual species' fitness
b. it completely removed dependence on water for
reproduction
c. it reinforced pre-zygotic isolation mechanisms
d. it increased the number of offspring an individual
female could have
e. all of the above
b. it complete-
ly removed depen-
dence on water for
reproduction
64.
An avid naturalist diver has decided to vacation on a
remote island, possibly never visited by a human be-
fore, with a rocky intertidal zone. While out exploring
he comes across a cnidarian that has bilateral sym-
d. the presence of
three different its
layers
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metry. He considers what he knows of the simple phy-
logeny of animals. He would like to place this species
into the group Bilateral. What one other characteristic
would lend support to his placing this organism in the
group Bilateria?
a. the presence of collagen in its tissues
b. the presence of an oral cavity
c. the presence of digestive tissues
d. the presence of three different its layers
e. all of the above
65.
Which of the following is a monophyletic group?
a. lemurs, lorises, pottos, tarsiers, New World mon-
keys, and Old World monkeys
b. New Wolrd monkeys and Old World monkeys
c. gibbons, orangutans, gorillas, and chimpanzees
d. orangutans, gorillas, and chimpanzees
e. gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans
e. gorillas, chim-
panzees, and hu-
mans
66.
This is the direct cell-to-cell transfer of DNA, usually
in the form of a plasmid
conjugation
67.
This Eukaryotic super kingdom is characterized by
organisms with 2 flagella, one with row of stiff hairs
and another that is smooth
stromenopila
68.
This single celled aquatic fungus has chitin walls and
is a major threat to amphibian populations worldwide
chytrids
69.
These structures make up the outermost whorl of a
flower, that encase and protect flower during its de-
velopment
sepal
70.
These mammals provide nutrition to the embryo
through a temporary organ that develops in the uterus
placental
71.
Which of the following statements regarding genetic
diversity is false?
c. genetic diversi-
ty is enhanced by
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a. genetic diversity is enhanced by random fertiliza-
tion
b. genetic diversity is enhanced by independent ori-
entation of chromosomes at metaphase 1
c. genetic diversity is enhanced by mitosis of somatic
cells
d. genetic diversity is enhanced by crossing over dur-
ing prophase 1 of meiosis
e. genetic diversity is enhanced by random mutations
of the DNA
mitosis of somatic
cells
72.
Research since Mendel's time has established that the
law of segregation of genes during games formation
a. applies to all forms of life
b. applies to all sexually reproducing organisms
c. applies to all asexually reproducing organisms
d. applies only to unicellular organisms
e. is invalid
b. applies to all
sexually reproduc-
ing organisms
73.
The mechanism that "breaks" the linkage between
linked genes is
a. complete dominance
b. pleiotrophy
c. codominance
d. crossing over
e. independent assortment
d. crossing over
74.
In pea plants flowers are either white or purple; the
purple color is produced by pigments called antho-
cyanins. The production of anthocyanin is a two step
process; the first is controlled by the C gene and
the second by the P gene. Both genes must produce
functional proteins for anthocyanin to be produced.
For each gene, the dominant (C and P) alleles produce
functional proteins. Which of the following genotypes
will produce white (no pigment) flowers?
e. ccPP and CCpp
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a. ccPP
b. CcPP
c. CCpp
d. ccPP and CcPP
e. ccPP and CCpp
75.
Inbred lines of animals, such as laboratory mice, are
useful for studying complex traits because:
a. individuals are genetically identical, so differences
in traits must be due to environmental differences
b. although individuals differ both genetically and en-
vironmentally, the genetic differences are known, so
differences in traits can be understood
c. animals are kept in identical environments so any
differences in traits are due to differences in their
genes
d. both genetic and environmental differences be-
tween individuals are known, making differences in
their traits easy to understand
e. none of these choices are correct
a. individuals are
genetically identi-
cal, so differences
in traits must be
due to environ-
mental differences
76.
Which of the following conditions would tend to
make the Hardy-Weinberg equation more accurate for
predicting the genotype frequencies of future gen-
erations in a population of a sexually reproducing
species?
a. a small population
b. little gene flow with surrounding populations
c. a tendency on the part of females to mate with the
healthiest males
d. frequent interbreeding with individuals from a sec-
ond population with different values of p and q
e. mutations that alter the gene pool
b. little gene flow
with surrounding
populations
77.
After a copper smelter begins operation, local popula-
tions of plants downwind of the plant begin to adapt to
c. directional se-
lection
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the resulting air pollution. Scientists document for ex-
ample that the acid tolerance of several plant species
has increased significantly in the polluted area. This
is an example of a response to
a. stabilizing selection
b. diversifying selection
c. directional selection
d. genetic drift
e. heterozygote advantage
78.
Blue-Footed boobies have webbed feet and are com-
ically clumsy when they walk on land. Evolutionary
scientists view these feet as
a. an example of a trait that is poorly adapted
b. the outcome of a trade off: webbed feet preform
poorly on land, but are helpful in diving for food
c. an example of a trait that has not evolved
d. a curiosity that has little to teach us regarding
evolution
e. one of the unsolved mysteries of nature
b. the outcome of a
trade off: webbed
feet preform poor-
ly on land, but are
helpful in diving for
food
79.
The likelihood of allopatric speciation increases
when a splinter population is ___________ and
______________ the broader range of the species
a. large, continues with
b. large, nearby
c. large, isolated from
d. small, nearby
e. small, isolated from
e. small, isolated
from
80.
An elk herd is observed over many generations. Most
of the full grown bull elk have antlers of nearly the
same size, although a few have antlers that are sig-
nificantly larger or smaller than the average size. The
average antler size remains constant over the gen-
erations. Which of the following effects prop baby
b. stabilizing selec-
tion
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amounts for this situation?
a. directional selection
b. stabilizing selection
c. a bottleneck effect that resulted in low genetic di-
versity
d. the founder effect
e. a high rate of gene flow
81.
A bacteriologist is studying two asexually repro-
ducing strains of E. coli. The two require differ-
ent amounts of trace minerals for survival; on the
grounds, the bacteriologist determines that they are
separate species. In making his determination, he is
using which species concept or concepts? Select all
that apply
a. biological species concept
b. ecological species concept
c. morphological species concept
d. evolutionary species concept
e. none of these
b. ecological
species concept
82.
In a hybrid zone, ___________ can occur if the repro-
ducing barrier between two species is weak, as seen
among cichlids in the murky water of Lake Victoria
a. reinforcement
b. allopatric speciation
c. sympatric speciation
d. reproductive isolation
e. fusion
e. fusion
83.
Anti-evolutionary thinkers sometimes argue that nat-
ural selection could not produce a complex structure
like the vertebrate eye. They claim that all of the parts
of the eye must have arisen at once asking why natural
selection would favor the development of part of an
eye that is not yet capable of forming a focused image.
b. There are
many intermediate
stages of eye com-
plexity that fulfill
different adaptive
functions
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Bio 226 Final Exam
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Which of the following statements is consistent with
a survey of eye structure in the mollusks?
a. The argument has a great deal of merit only
full-blown image forming eyes are present in modern
organisms
b. There are many intermediate stages of eye complex-
ity that fulfill different adaptive functions
c. The vertebrate eye must have arisen by a very dra-
matic single mutation within the eyeless ancestor
d. The vertebrate eye is the ancestral form and other
types of organisms have degenerate eyes that have
lost most of their original structure and function
e. The vertebrate eye was completely distinct from the
eyes found in mollusks and other invertebrates
84.
In accordance with the principle of parsimony, scien-
tists prefer
a. simpler phylogenetic trees that minimize the num-
ber of evolutionary changes
b. complex phylogenetic trees in which adaptations
repeatedly arise disappear and reappear
c. phylogenetic trees with many small clades to those
with a few major clades
d. phylogenetic trees to non phylogenetic classifica-
tions
e. the Linnaean system of nomenclature to the use of
common names
a. simpler phylo-
genetic trees that
minimize the num-
ber of evolutionary
changes
85.
Which of the following would tend to promote adap-
tive radiation?
a. an area has a high number of species that exploit
most of the available ecological opportunities
b. an organism has a very stable set of features and
capabilities over long spans of evolutionary time
c. an organism colonizes an isolated area that is hab-
itable but relatively devoid of life
c. an organism col-
onizes an isolated
area that is habit-
able but relatively
devoid of life
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d. an organism colonies an area that already has a
high level of existing species diversity
e. a single species goes extinct but it has several com-
petitors that quickly expand to assume its ecological
roles
86.
In a phylogenetic tree, a node or branching point rep-
resents:
a. the species in the fossil record from which the
descendent species diverged
b. one of the descendent species in the phylogeny
c. the ancestral species from which all species in the
phylogeny arose
d. the common ancestor from which the descendent
species diverged
e. a node could be any of these depending on the
nature of the phylogenetic tree
d. the common an-
cestor from which
the descendent
species diverged
87.
This type of dominance pattern leads to heterozy-
gotes to express an intermediate blend of both domi-
nant and recessive alleles
incomplete domi-
nance
88.
This describes natural selection that acts to maintain
two or more alleles of a given even in a population
balancing selec-
tion
89.
This describes a population that exhibits only one
allele for a given even after the elimination of the other
allele
fixed population
90.
This type of speciation event occurs when two
species arise within the same geographic range of the
parental species
sympatric specia-
tion
91.
This describes the process in which a geographical
barrier arises within a single population, separating it
into two or more subpopulations
vicariance
92.
exaptation
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This term describes the gradual adaptation of existing
structures to new functions and can be important in
the evolution of complex organs or traits
93.
This describes the proportion of the total variation
in a trait that is due to genetic differences among
individuals
heritability
94.
This term describes mutations that have little or no
impact on the organism's ability to survive and repro-
duce
neutral mutation
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