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Exam 1 BIMS/GENE 320 2024 Printed Name __________________________ Multiple Choice (2 points each) 1. In his monohybrid crosses, Mendel deduced that one trait was recessive because _____. A. that trait was not present in the F 1 and did not reappear in the F 2 B. that trait was present only in the F 2 C. that trait was not present in the F 1 and reappeared in the F 2 D. that trait was present in the F 1 and in the F 2 E. that trait was present only in the parents 2. What does OMIM stand for? A. Obesity and Multifactorial Impact Mutations B. Only Mendelian Inherited Mutations C. Original Mutations in Mitosis D. OMIM is a common symbol used in human medicine E. Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man 3. When discussing the complicated issues of human multifactorial traits in class, we introduced the concept of the “threshold model.” This model helps to understand the frequency of a disorder among relatives compared with the frequency of the disorder among the general population. What human disorder did we discuss in class that is clinically handled as a “threshold disorder?” A. Eye color B. Diabetes C. One type of skin cancer D. None of these disorders were discussed in relationship to multifactorial traits E. Progeria 4. What is genomics? A. the study of genomes and their genetic content, organization, function and evolution. B. the complete chromosome set in a cell. C. the total haploid set of DNA sequences carried by an individual D. all of the DNA, RNA and protein in an individual cell E. None of these answers define a genomics 5. What Mendel called “factors” we now call ____ . A. nucleotides B. bases C. genes D. chromosomes E. DNA 6. In the ABO multiple allele system, there are the following combinations of genotypes and phenotypes: A. 4 genotypes, 6 phenotypes B. 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes C. 6 genotypes, 4 phenotypes D. 6 genotypes, 6 phenotypes E. 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes 7. A 10 year old boy has a serious disorder known as cystic fibrosis and his younger sister has the same disorder. Neither of the children’s parents have the disorder. Assuming this is a genetic trait, what is the most likely inheritance pattern of this disorder?

A. Autosomal dominant B. It is not possible to tell the inheritance pattern from this information. C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive E. Autosomal recessive 8. Mendel’s principle of independent assortment is directly related to an event that occurs in _____ of meiosis. A. anaphase I B. prophase I C. metaphase II D. prophase II E. metaphase I 9. A child is born with a lethal dominant allele. This would seem to be impossible since either parent, had they possessed this allele, would have suffered its lethal effects. What is a possible explanation? A. The allele could have varied expressivity and not always be lethal. B. The allele could have delayed onset. C. The child's allele is a spontaneous mutation that neither parent had to deal with. D. All of these are possible. E. None of these is possible. 10. Which of the following is an event that does NOT occur in prophase of mitosis? A. The nuclear envelope starts to break up. B. The mitotic spindle begins to form. C. The chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell. D. The chromosomes begin to condense. E. All of these are events that occur in prophase of mitosis. 11. Which of the following is a goal of human pedigree analysis? A. To determine the severity of the disorder B. To determine the molecular cause of a phenotype C. To determine how DNA replicates D. To determine the inheritance of non-genetic traits. E. None these things can be determined using pedigree analysis 12. What is the chance that a woman who has a recessive form of X chromosome red/green color blindness will have a son who is not color blind? A. 25 percent B. 100 percent C. 50 percent D. 0 percent E. 75 percent 13. One of the important properties of genes is that they have the ability to "recombine." This refers to their ability to ____. A. be transmitted from parents to children B. undergo changes C. break into pieces and then reassemble D. be turned on and off E. move from one chromosome to another 14. In meiosis, what is physically exchanged during the process of crossing-over? A. mitochondrial DNA.

B. regions of non-sister chromatids. C. usually abnormal karyotypes. D. only single copy genes and a few gene families. E. none of these. 15. Mendel is considered the “Father of Genetics”. His work on the transmission of “factors’ in pea plants is applicable to ____. A. all plants, but only plants B. all organisms on this planet C. really only pea plants D. none of these are true E. all plants and a few animals 16. In genetics, alternate forms of a gene are best described as _____. A. homozygous B. loci C. alleles D. homologues E. heterozygous 17. A cell that could not form spindle fibers could not complete ____. A. protein synthesis B. mitosis C. DNA replication D. cellular energy production E. gas exchange across the plasma membrane 18. In a cross involving mitochondrial inheritance _____. A. the dominant phenotype is expressed in the F 1 B. F 1 heterozygotes almost never have a phenotype like one of the parents C. the phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio in the F 2 are identical D. Mendelian rules do not apply E. the recessive phenotype is expressed in the F 1 19. If a man expresses a Y-linked trait, we can draw the following conclusion: A. His mother most likely had the mutation gene. B. Some of his brothers may also show the trait. C. His mother was heterozygous or homozygous for the trait. D. none of these are true. E. His father most likely did not transmitt the trait to his son. 20. If a large pedigree of 5 generations shows only affected males in each generation, what is the most likely mose of inheritance? A. Autosomal recessive inheritance B. X-linked recessive inheritance C. X-linked dominant inheritance D. Y-linked inheritance E. None of these explain this type of inheritance. 21. Normal human haploid gametes (sperm and eggs) contain: A. 92 chromosomes B. 46 chromosomes C. 23 chromosomes and 46 chromatids

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D. none of these are true E. 23 chromosomes 22. The phenotype is _____. A. never homozygous B. controlled by the genotype C. the result of inheritance from both parents D. the expression of a trait in an organism E. all of these 23. A man is heterozygous for two genes that occur on autosomes. Just concerning these two genes, how many different types of sperm cells can he produce and in what proportions? A. 2 in the ration of 1:1 B. 5 in the ratio of 1:2:3:2:1 C. 16 in the ration of 9:3:3:1 D. 4 in the ratio of 1:1:1:1 E. none of these are correct. 24. In humans, autosomes represent ____. A. all chromosomes including the sex chromosomes B. chromosome pairs with unlike members C. those chromosomes found only in gametes D. all chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes E. the half of the chromosomes inherited from one parent 25. Twins are said to be concordant for a trait when A. only fraternal twins exhibit the trait. B. fraternal twins more often show the trait than identical twins C. only identical twins exhibit the trait. D. both twins exhibit the trait. E. none of these is true. 26. If a trait is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, which of the following is true? A. All of these are true. B. About one-fourth of the offspring of two heterozygotes will be affected. C. Two affected individuals cannot have an unaffected child. D. The trait often appears in the progeny of unaffected parents. E. Both sexes are equally affected. 27. For cells in culture, the Hayflick limit describes ____. A. the size limit to which a cell can grow B. the largest number of chromosomes an organism can possess C. how rapidly DNA replication occurs D. none of these are true E. the number of divisions a cell can undergo 28. Parents with normal pigmentation have an albino daughter. What is the chance that their next two children are males and have normal pigmentation? A. 1/4 B. none of these C. 1/2 D. 3/4 E. 1/16

29. Which one of the following statements about eugenics is UNTRUE ? A. It contributed to the Immigration Act of 1924. B. It is based on the assumption that human traits are much less influenced by environment than genes. C. It was used to justify the passage of sterilization laws. D. It is a dubious method for improving the human species through selective breeding. E. It was founded by Charles Darwin. 30. How many different types of chromosomes do humans possess? A. 22 B. 23 C. 24 D. 42 E. 46 31. Which of the following genetic diseases/disorders involve defects in DNA repair, which affects cell division? A. Huntington’s disease and autism B. Progeria and Werner syndrome C. Gaucher disease and cystic fibrosis D. Gaucher disease and Werner syndrome E. Kearns-Sayre syndrome and progeria 32. In the cell cycle, the S phase represents ____. A. the stage of DNA synthesis B. the stage of actual cell division C. the stage just prior to meiosis D. splitting of the chromosomes into chromatids E. simply a period of cell growth 33. The tall and short phenotypes in Mendel’s pea plants are examples of A. multifactorial traits. B. polygenic traits. C. gene interaction. D. discontinuous traits. E. continuous traits. 34. In meiosis of oogenesis, how many mature eggs result? A. 3 B. 1 C. 4 D. 2 35. Which of the following was a result of the eugenics movement in the United States in the 1920s? A. Individuals with desirable traits (selective breeding) were encouraged to have large families. B. Individuals thought to be genetically unfit were sterilized. C. laws were passed that restricted immigration from southern and Eastern Europe D. None of these “facts” are historically true regarding eugenics in the US. E. All of these “facts” were a result of the eugenics movement in the US.

36. Let’s say in humans, hair texture is an incompletely dominant and autosomal trait. Curly is the dominant genotype, wavy is heterozygous, and straight hair is recessive. What is the probable phenotypic ratio for a cross between a man with wavy hair and a woman with curly hair? A. All wavy hair B. All curly hair C. 3/4 wavy hair; 1/4 straight hair D. 1/2 wavy hair; 1/2 curly hair E. 1/4 curly hair; 1/2 wavy hair; 1/4 straight hair 37. Genetics is defined as the study of ____. A. the study of heredity B. the study of DNA C. more than one of these D. the study chromosome structure E. the study of diseases 38. In a cross between a true-breeding plant bearing smooth, yellow seeds and a true-breeding plant with wrinkled, green seeds, the offspring were all smooth and yellow. What is the genotype of the F 1 plants? A. ssyy B. SSYY C. SSyy D. ssYY E. SsYy 39. As we discussed in class, our textbook provides some misleading information regarding the inhertance of eye color in humans. Based on more recent genomic evidence, it appears there how many individual genes involved in human eye color? A. at least 10 B. Two C. None of these answers are supported by the most recent data D. most likely over 15 E. Five 40. In a pedigree, a person whose symbol has a diagonal line through it and who is associated with the roman numeral II _____. A. is affected by the trait and has an identical twin B. is not affected by the trait and in the second generation C. is deceased and was in the second generation of this pedigree D. is affected by the trait and is the second-oldest child in the family E. is not affected by the trait and is the second-oldest child in the family 41. Almost all cases of alkaptonuria, a rare genetic disorder, arise as the result of mating between two unaffected parents. Why? A. It is a co-dominant disorder. B. It is a disorder that only affects mature adults. C. It is a recessive disorder. D. It is a dominant disorder. E. It is a disorder controlled by multiple alleles 42. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Marfan syndrome? A. Short stature B. Blood vessel defects

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C. Loose joints D. Vision problems E. All of these are symptoms of Marfan syndrome 43. The branch of genetics concerned with the mechanisms by which genes are inherited across generations is called ____ . A. cytogenetics B. pedigree analysis C. recombinant DNA technology D. transmission genetics E. molecular genetics 44. Heritability is the measurement of the genetic contribution to phenotypic variation. High heritability (100%) is H = 1.00 and low heritability (0% genetic control) is H = 0.00. What is the heritability of human fingerprints? A. Medium H > .80 B. High H > .90 C. Low H > .50 D. Very high H > .95 E. human fingerprints are not a genetic trait and have very low H values 45. Independent assortment means that _____. A. the segregation of one gene pair depends on the segregation of another gene pair B. the gametes produced must be heterozygous in all cases C. the phenotypic ratio in F 2 will be the same for dihybrid and monohybrid crosses D. the segregation of one gene pair occurs as if no other gene pair was present E. monohybrid crosses will show segregation and independent assortment True/False (1 point each) 46. There are four common alleles of the gene that controls human blood type. 47. More than one mode of inheritance can be seen for a single trait. 48. The proband in a pedigree is always heterozygous. 49. In heterozygous crosses, the phenotypic and genotypic ratios differ for completely dominant traits but are the same for traits showing incomplete dominance. 50. "Crossing over" is partially responsible for our genetic diversity. 51. Color blindness only occurs in males. 52. Human traits are controlled only by the genetic material found in the 46 chromosomes. 53. Mitotic divisions reduce the number of chromosomes found in daughter cells. 54. If each phenotypically normal parent is heterozygous for albinism and deafness, the chance that they will produce a deaf albino is 1 in 16. 55. Chi square tests are used to determine whether a cross has been correctly constructed and analyzed.

Exam 1 BIMS/GENE 320 2024 Printed Name __________________________ Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: C 2. ANS: E 3. ANS: B 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: C 6. ANS: C 7. ANS: E 8. ANS: E 9. ANS: D 10. ANS: C 11. ANS: E 12. ANS: D 13. ANS: E 14. ANS: B 15. ANS: D 16. ANS: C 17. ANS: B 18. ANS: D 19. ANS: D 20. ANS: D 21. ANS: E 22. ANS: D 23. ANS: D 24. ANS: D 25. ANS: D 26. ANS: A 27. ANS: E 28. ANS: D 29. ANS: E 30. ANS: C 31. ANS: B 32. ANS: A 33. ANS: D 34. ANS: B 35. ANS: E 36. ANS: D 37. ANS: A 38. ANS: E 39. ANS: A 40. ANS: C

41. ANS: C 42. ANS: A 43. ANS: D 44. ANS: D 45. ANS: D TRUE/FALSE 46. ANS: F 47. ANS: T 48. ANS: F 49. ANS: T 50. ANS: T 51. ANS: F 52. ANS: F 53. ANS: F 54. ANS: T 55. ANS: F

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