There are the three reas0ns why aggregate demand is d0wnward sl0pe: real wealth effect, interest rate effect, exchange rate effect. In a case scenari0, the market saw an increase in c0nsumer spending when there is a b00m in ec0n0my. 0r the ec0n0mic crisis makes the public bit shy t0 buy 0r c0nsume any pr0duct. In the ab0ve tw0 situati0ns: the transfer payment d0es n0t make the part 0f g0vernment spending as the public will spend the m0ney given as self-security and unempl0yment. Exp0rt situati0n gets w0rse as the f0reigners are reluctant t0 buy expensive g00ds and the g0vernment will make s0me imp0rts. The b0rr0wing has bec0me easy and l0ans are issued at a cheaper rate t0 buy car. F0ll0wing the equati0n: Y = C + I + G + NX will the bel0w examples increase 0r decrease the aggregate demand in Indian? What will be the shift in p0siti0n f0r bel0w situati0ns? Widespread fear 0f recessi0n An increase in transfer payment A decrease in real interest rate in Pakistan
There are the three reas0ns why aggregate
F0ll0wing the equati0n: Y = C + I + G + NX will the bel0w examples increase 0r decrease the aggregate demand in Indian? What will be the shift in p0siti0n f0r bel0w situati0ns?
- Widespread fear 0f recessi0n
- An increase in transfer payment
- A decrease in real interest rate in Pakistan
Step by step
Solved in 4 steps with 2 images
