EBK INVESTMENTS
11th Edition
ISBN: 9781259357480
Author: Bodie
Publisher: MCGRAW HILL BOOK COMPANY
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Chapter 10, Problem 5CP
Summary Introduction
To select: Reason of difference between arbitrage pricing model and capital pricing model.
Introduction : Arbitrage pricing model used when there is no
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Students have asked these similar questions
In contrast to the capital asset pricing model, arbitrage pricing theory:a. Requires that markets be in equilibrium.b. Uses risk premiums based on micro variables.c. Specifies the number and identifies specific factors that determine expected returns.d. Does not require the restrictive assumptions concerning the market portfolio.
Both the capital asset pricing model and the arbitrage pricing theory rely on the proposition that a no-risk, no-wealth investment should earn, on average, no return. Explain why this should be the case, being sure to describe briefly the similarities and differences between the CAPM and the APT. Also, using either of these theories, explain how superior investment performance can be established.
According to Capital Asset Pricing theory (CAPM), in a competitive marketplace:
Group of answer choices
A. only systematic risk is rewarded.
B. only diversifiable risk is rewarded.
C. all types of risks are rewarded.
D. no risk is rewarded.
Chapter 10 Solutions
EBK INVESTMENTS
Ch. 10 - Prob. 1PSCh. 10 - Prob. 2PSCh. 10 - Prob. 3PSCh. 10 - Prob. 4PSCh. 10 - Prob. 5PSCh. 10 - Prob. 6PSCh. 10 - Prob. 7PSCh. 10 - Prob. 8PSCh. 10 - Prob. 9PSCh. 10 - Prob. 10PS
Ch. 10 - Prob. 11PSCh. 10 - Prob. 12PSCh. 10 - Prob. 13PSCh. 10 - Prob. 14PSCh. 10 - Prob. 15PSCh. 10 - Prob. 16PSCh. 10 - Prob. 17PSCh. 10 - Prob. 18PSCh. 10 - Prob. 19PSCh. 10 - Prob. 1CPCh. 10 - Prob. 2CPCh. 10 - Prob. 3CPCh. 10 - Prob. 4CPCh. 10 - Prob. 5CPCh. 10 - Prob. 6CPCh. 10 - Prob. 7CPCh. 10 - Prob. 8CP
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- Capital Asset Pricing Model is based on certain assumptions, which have been criticized after empirical testing of the model. Discuss the critique of the model in the context of those assumption. Also discuss the empirical findings of the CAPM. What sort of models have been presented to overcome the drawbacks of CAPM?arrow_forwardThe feature of the general version of the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) that offers the greatest potential advantage over the simple CAPM is the:a. Identification of anticipated changes in production, inflation, and term structure of interest rates as key factors explaining the risk–return relationship.b. Superior measurement of the risk-free rate of return over historical time periods.c. Variability of coefficients of sensitivity to the APT factors for a given asset over time.d. Use of several factors instead of a single market index to explain the risk–return relationship.arrow_forwardJeffrey Bruner, CFA, uses the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) to help identify mispriced securities. A consultant suggests Bruner use arbitrage pricing theory (APT) instead. In comparing CAPM and APT, the consultant makes the following arguments:a. Both the CAPM and APT require a mean-variance efficient market portfolio.b. Neither the CAPM nor the APT assumes normally distributed security returns.c. The CAPM assumes that one specific factor explains security returns but APT does not.State whether each of the consultant’s arguments is correct or incorrect. Indicate, for each incorrect argument, why the argument is incorrect.arrow_forward
- This is a generalized framework for analyzing the relationship between risk and return: a. capital asset pricing model b. diversification theory c. capital market line d. arbitrage pricing theoryarrow_forwardWhich of the following is NOT an assumption used in deriving the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)? Investors can buy and sell all securities at competitive market prices without incurring taxes or transactions cost and can borrow and lend at the risk-free interest rate Investors hold only efficient portfolios of traded securities. Investors have homogeneous expectations regarding the volatilities, correlation, and expected returns of securities. Investors have homogeneous risk averse preferences toward taking on risk.arrow_forwardWhich of the following statements is true? a) It is possible that the Arbitrage Pricing Theory is Valid and the Capital Asset Pricing Model is not. b) It is possible that the Capital Asset Pricing Model is valid and the Arbitrage Pricing Theory is not.arrow_forward
- Discuss the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and the Arbitrage Pricing Model (APM) of Roll and Ross. What are the main differences between these two models?arrow_forwardAccording to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), which of the following statements is true (only of them is): (a) A share with more total risk should provide a higher return than one with less total risk. (b) A share with more idiosyncratic risk should provide a higher return than one with less idiosyncratic risk. (c) A share with more systematic risk should provide a higher return than one with less systematic risk. (d) Only a share with no risk (either systematic or idiosyncratic) should pay the risk free rate. (e) The expected market return is the appropriate discount rate of risky projects.arrow_forwardHow is the arbitrage pricing theory (APT) similar to the capital asset pricing model? Group of answer choices Both theories assume that undiversifiable risk is priced. Both theories assume that diversifiable risk is priced Both theories assume investors will hold a well-diversified portfolio Both the first and second responses are true. Both the first and third responses are true.arrow_forward
- The capital asset pricing model expresses the cost of equity as a function of a return on riskless assets, a market premium, and: Select one:a. Unsystematic risk.b. None of these.c. The cost of debt.d. Systematic risk.arrow_forwardAn investor takes as large a position as possible when an equilibrium pricerelationship is violated. This is an example of:A. A dominance argument.B. The mean-variance efficient frontier.C. Arbitrage activity.D. The capital asset pricing model.arrow_forwardWhich of the following is NOT true? In risk-neutral valuation the risk-free rate is used to discount expected cash flows Options can be valued based on the assumption that investors are risk neutral Risk-neutral valuation provides prices that are only correct in a world where investors are risk-neutral In risk-neutral valuation the expected return on all investment assets is set equal to the risk-free ratearrow_forward
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