PHYSICS:F/SCI...W/MOD..-UPD(LL)W/ACCES
PHYSICS:F/SCI...W/MOD..-UPD(LL)W/ACCES
9th Edition
ISBN: 9780357001417
Author: SERWAY
Publisher: CENGAGE L
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Chapter 30, Problem 60AP

(a)

To determine

The proof for the statement that the magnetic field on the axis at a distance x from the center of one coil is B=Nμ0IR22[1(R2+x2)32+1(2R2+x22Rx)32].

(a)

Expert Solution
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Answer to Problem 60AP

The proof for the statement that the magnetic field at a distance x from center of one coil is Nμ0IR22[1(x2+R2)32+1(x2+2R22Rx)32]i^ is stated as below.

Explanation of Solution

The following figure shows two circular coils of radius R that are perpendicular to a common axis.

PHYSICS:F/SCI...W/MOD..-UPD(LL)W/ACCES, Chapter 30, Problem 60AP

Figure-(1)

From Figure (1) consider that the distance x from point P to the center of the left coil.

Write the expression for the magnetic field at point P due to left coil.

    B1=Nμ0IR22(x2+R2)32i^

Here, B1 is the magnetic field at point P due to left coil, N is the number of turns on the coil, μ0 is the permeability of free space, R is the radius of the coil and x is the distance between the center of the left coil and point P.

Write the expression for the magnetic field at point P due to right coil.

    B2=Nμ0IR22((xR)2+R2)32i^

Here, B2 is the magnetic field at point P due to the right coil.

From Figure (1) it is shown that the current is flowing on the same direction. Therefore the expression for the net magnetic field at point P due to both the coils are.

    B=B1+B2                                                                                                                (I)

Here, B is the net magnetic field at point P due to both the coils.

Substitute Nμ0IR22(x2+R2)32i^ for B1 and Nμ0IR22((xR)2+R2)32i^ for B2 in equation (I) to calculate B.

    B=(Nμ0IR22(x2+R2)32i^)+(Nμ0IR22((xR)2+R2)32i^)=Nμ0IR22[1(x2+R2)32+1(x2+2R22Rx)32]i^

Therefore, magnetic field at a distance x from center of one coil is Nμ0IR22[1(x2+R2)32+1(x2+2R22Rx)32]i^.

(b)

To determine

The proof that dBdx and d2Bdx2 are equal to zero at the point midway between the coils.

(b)

Expert Solution
Check Mark

Answer to Problem 60AP

The proof that dBdx and d2Bdx2 are equal to zero at the point midway between the coils is as stated below.

Explanation of Solution

The magnetic field at the point midway between the coils is,

    B=Nμ0IR22[1(x2+R2)32+1(x2+2R22Rx)32]i^

Differentiate the above equation with respect to x.

    dBdx=Nμ0IR22[(32)(2x(x2+R2)52+2(Rx)(1)((Rx)2+R2)52)]                                        (II)

Substitute R2 for x in Equation (I) to calculate dBdx.

    dBdx=Nμ0IR22[(32)(2(R2)((R2)2+R2)52+2(RR2)(1)((RR2)2+R2)52)]=Nμ0IR22[(32)(2(R2)((R2)2+R2)522(R2)((R2)2+R2)52)]=0                              (III)

Differentiate Equation (II) with respect to x to calculate d2Bdx2.

    d2Bdx2=(Nμ0IR22)(32)[(52)((2x)(2x)(x2+R2)72)+2(x2+R2)52+(52)22(Rx)2(1)2((Rx)2+R2)72+2((Rx)2+R2)52]

Substitute R2 for x in the above to calculate d2Bdx2.

    d2Bdx2=(Nμ0IR22)(32)[(52)((2(R2))(2(R2))((R2)2+R2)72)+2((R2)2+R2)52+(52)22(R(R2))2(1)2((R(R2))2+R2)72+2((R(R2))2+R2)52]=(Nμ0IR22)(32)[(52)(R2((R2)2+R2)72)+2((R2)2+R2)52+(52)R2((R2)2+R2)72+2((R2)2+R2)52]=(Nμ0IR22)(32)[4((R2)2+R2)52(5R2((R2)2+R2)72)]=(Nμ0IR22)(32)(1((R2)2+R2)52)[4(5R2((R2)2+R2))]

Further solve the above equation.

    d2Bdx2=(Nμ0IR22)(32)(1(5R24)52)[4(5R2(5R42))]=(Nμ0IR22)(32)(1(5R24)52)[4(5R42)5R2](15R42)=(Nμ0IR22)(32)(1(5R24)52)[5R25R2](15R42)=0                                 (IV)

Conclusion:

From Equation (III) and Equation (IV), dBdx and d2Bdx2 are equal to zero. Therefore, magnetic fields at the midway between the coils are uniform.

Therefore, both the coils are Helmholtz coils.

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Chapter 30 Solutions

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