Practice Mid Term Exam

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Sheridan College *

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70019

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Management

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Feb 20, 2024

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docx

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Uploaded by catherinewhite57

Practice Mid Term Exam – T&D 1) Components of a performance management process usually identify training and development needs of individuals leading to concrete plans for development of skills, knowledge, and abilities a. True b. False 2) Development is described as a planned effort to develop employees’ knowledge, skills, and abilities to help employees perform better at their current jobs a. True b. False 3) One of the extrinsic benefits of training and development is the benefits realized by society a. True b. False 4) The key environmental factors that drive human resources and training and development within an organization include technology, global competition, the labour market, and organizational strategy a. True b. False 5) The trend toward flatter organizational structures is causing some element of blurriness in what constitutes traditional roles associated with management functions a. True b. False 6) Restructuring, downsizing, and reengineering often lead to changes in employees’ tasks and responsibilities and so necessitate the need for training a. True b. False 7) A high-performance work system may be described as a specific combination of human resource practices that maximize the knowledge, skills, abilities, flexibility, and commitment of employees a. True b. False 8) A needs analysis typically has three levels: an organizational analysis, a departmental analysis, and a person analysis a. True b. False 9) The ISD model of training and development has three major steps: needs analysis, design, and delivery a. True b. False

10) Human capital refers to the knowledge, skills, and abilities of an organization’s employees a. True b. False 11) Work engagement is a positive, fulfilling, work-related state of mind that characterized by vigor, dedication, and attention a. True b. False 12) According to the textbook, what is the number-one attraction and retention tool for many organizations? a. Compensation b. Training c. Bonuses d. Development 13) Which of the following are two extrinsic benefits training will give an employee? a. An improved marketability and greater job security b. A greater sense of self-efficacy and a sense of accomplishment c. A more positive attitude toward their employer and their own confidence d. A greater sense of engagement toward customers and fellow employees 14) What should be the most important internal or external factor influencing training and development programs in organizations? a. Demographics b. The competitive nature of the industry c. Corporate strategy d. Leadership and managerial decisions 15) Which of the following key environmental factors drive training and development? a. Change b. Values c. Selection d. Culture 16) What tends to result when an organization subscribes to strategic human resource management whereby it has greater alignment between its HR practices and its strategies? a. Superior performance b. Greater work-life balance c. Enhanced efficiencies d. Exemplary quality

17) Which of the following is impacted by high-performance work systems? a. Employees’ compensation b. Employers’ motivation c. Employees’ motivation d. Community involvement 18) Which of the following statements regarding the instructional systems design (ISD) model is congruent with the material presented in the textbook? a. It is an irrational and scientific process b. It consists of four main steps: needs analysis, design, delivery, and evaluation c. It is a much more complex model when compared with the streamline ADDIE model d. Its first step attempts to answer the question “is training needed and is it the best solution?” 19) When a behaviour has been learned it can be thought of as a skill a. True b. False 20) According to Robert Gagne, learning outcomes associated with training can be classified into five general categories: declarative knowledge, intellectual skills, cognitive strategies, motor skills, and procedural knowledge a. True b. False 21) Kurt Kraiger and colleagues developed a classification scheme for learning outcomes that includes cognitive outcomes, skill-based outcomes, and affective outcomes a. True b. False 22) Conditioning theory suggests that trainees should be encouraged and reinforced throughout the training process a. True b. False 23) “Adult Learning” should be self-directed, and problem centred and should take into account the learner’s existing knowledge and experience a. True b. False 24) The 70-20-10 model states that 70% of workplace learning comes from on-the-job experiences, 20% comes from education, and 10% comes from formal learning activities and events a. True b. False

25) Training motivation predicts learning and training outcomes and is influenced by environmental and individual factors a. True b. False 26) A trainee’s cognitive abilities influence how much and how quickly a trainee will learn, impacting actual job performance a. True b. False 27) Self-regulation prompts ask trainees questions about their preferred style of learning a. True b. False 28) Which of the following is NOT an implication you would draw from understanding Kolb’s learning styles theory? a. Trainees differ in the way they prefer to learn b. Training methods should be aligned with the trainee’s learning preferences c. A trainee’s learning style is related to how trainees acquire knowledge in training and how they use information on the job d. Training design should consider so-called learning modes 29) Which of the following characteristics are congruent with the notion of informal learning? a. Spontaneous, immediate, and task-specific b. Strategic, goal-oriented, and long-term focused c. Structured, group-focused, and unplanned d. Defined, organization-wide, and explicit 30) Why is the concept of informal learning receiving so much attention from managers? a. Because of the need to reduce expenditures in training and development b. Because of the speed of change and demographic realities c. Because of the level of attention the topic of informal learning has received from academics and management gurus d. Because it requires fewer resources and management attention 31) How is the concept of training motivation defined? a. Trainees’ beliefs about how their behaviour is controlled b. The direction, intensity, and persistence of learning-directed behaviour c. The motivation that stems from a direct relationship between a worker and the task d. The relationship between worker, task, and valence

32) What training conclusions can be drawn for individuals with an internal locus of control? a. They tend to have lower self-efficacy for training b. They tend to have higher training motivation c. They tend to have higher anxiety about training d. They tend to make a weaker link between effort and training 33) One of the key outcomes of an organizational analysis is determining the congruency of a potential training program and the corporate or business-level strategy a. True b. False 34) Besides clarifying the nature of performance gaps, a needs analysis helps to determine whether training and development is a good solution to performance problems or whether some other intervention might be more effective a. True b. False 35) Organizational climate refers to the collective attitudes of its employees toward work, supervision, and company goals, policies, and procedures a. True b. False 36) Competencies are clusters of related knowledge, skills, and abilities that differentiate performers from ineffective performers a. True b. False 37) Ineffective performance indicates that training is needed to close the gap between current performance and desired performance a. True b. False 38) Contingency management has its basis in social cognitive theory a. True b. False 39) According to the textbook, which important step in the needs analysis process is the most extensive, potentially leading organization to skip it? a. A culture and climate audit of the organization b. A task and person analysis c. Data collection at three levels: organizational, task, and person d. Being clear on the nature of the actual “itch”

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