Genetics MCQs
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1
Section 2
Genetics
Midterm Sample questions
1)
What does transformation involve in bacteria?
A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule
B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA
E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell
2)
In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey
and Chase made use of which of the following facts?
A) DNA does not contain sulfur, whereas protein does.
B) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not.
C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
3)
Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an
organism. Approximately, what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will
be thymine?
A) 12
B) 24
C) 31
D) 38
E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
4) What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double
helix?
A) hydrogen
B) ionic
C) covalent
D) sulfhydryl
E) phosphate
4)
DNA replication occurs along a _______ template forming a newly synthesized
DNA strand in the _______ direction.
a.
5’ to 3’; 5’ to 3’
b.
3’ to 5’; 3’ to 5’
c.
5’ to 3’; 3’ to 5’
d.
3’ to 5’; 5’ to 3’
6) What is the first step in initiation during DNA synthesis?
A) DNA B is recruited and binds to GC rich areas called 9 mers
B)
DNA A binds to AT rich areas called 9 mers
C)
Helicase unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds
between A-T bases
D)
Primase is recruited by DNA B to synthesize RNA primers with a free 3’ OH
E)
All events occur at the same time
2
Section 2
Genetics
Midterm Sample questions
7) During elongation, primase is:
a.
Located only on the leading strand
b.
Located on the leading and lagging strand, one primase per strand
c.
Located only on the lagging strand
d.
Not present any more because it has fulfilled its purpose during initiation
e.
Not a component in DNA replication
8) How is termination signaled in eukaryotes?
A)
Ter-tus binding site stops movement of the replication fork
B)
Continues to the telomere of the chromosome with a 3’ overhang on
the lagging strand
C)
Continues to the telomere of the chromosome with a 3’ overhang on
the leading strand
D)
DNA polymerase I falls off the DNA template strand and stops
replication
E)
An endonuclease cleaves the DNA at a specific sequence signaling DNA
polymerase III to stop replication
9) GC base pairs are stronger than AT base pairs because:
a.
GC pairs are covalently bonded whereas AT pairs are hydrogen
bonded
b.
G and C nucleotides are not as easily recognized by helicases
c.
G and C nucleotides are more firmly linked to the backbone
d.
GC pairs have more hydrogen bonds than AT pairs
e.
All of the above
10)
The strands that make up DNA are antiparallel. This means that
A) the twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
B) the 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other
strand.
C) base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
D) one strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
E) one strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.
11)
The leading and the lagging strands differ in that
A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the
replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing
strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.
C) the leading strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the lagging strand is
synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
12)
E. coli
cells grown on
15
N medium are transferred to
14
N medium and allowed to grow
for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these
cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this
experiment?
A) one high-density and one low-density band
3
Section 2
Genetics
Midterm Sample questions
B) one intermediate-density band
C) one high-density and one intermediate-density band
D) one low-density and one intermediate-density band
E) one low-density band
13) All of the following are functions of DNA polymerase in DNA replication
except
A) covalently adding nucleotides to the new strands.
B) proofreading each added nucleotide for correct base pairing.
C) replacing RNA primers with DNA.
D) initiating a polynucleotide strand.
E) none of the above
14) Which of the following represents a similarity between RNA and DNA?
A) Both are double-stranded.
B) the presence of uracil
C) the presence of an OH group on the 2' carbon of the sugar
D) nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogenous base
E) Both are found exclusively in the nucleus.
15) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group?
A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone
B) proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA
D) alpha glucose, ATP, and DNA
E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP
16) If proteins were composed of only 12 different kinds of amino acids, what would be
the smallest possible codon size in a genetic system with four different nucleotides?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 12
17)
A codon
A) consists of two nucleotides.
B) may code for the same amino acid as another codon.
C) consists of discrete amino acid regions.
D) catalyzes RNA synthesis.
E) is found in all eukaryotes, but not in prokaryotes.
18) If the triplet CCC codes for the amino acid proline in bacteria, then in plants CCC
should code for
A) leucine.
B) valine.
C) cystine.
D) phenylalanine.
E) proline.
19)
Which of the following are transcribed from DNA?
A) protein
B) exons
C) rRNA
4
Section 2
Genetics
Midterm Sample questions
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C
20) Which of the following is
not
a part of the eukaryotic transcription initiation complex?
A) promoter
B) RNA polymerase
C) transcription factors
D) snRNP
E) TATA box
21) All of the following are found in prokaryotic mRNA
except
A) the AUG codon.
B) the UGA codon.
C) introns.
D) uracil.
E) cytosine.
22) Alternative RNA splicing
A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
B) can allow the production of proteins of dramatically different sizes from a single
mRNA.
C) can allow the production of proteins of dramatically different amino acid sequences
from a single mRNA.
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C
23)
Where is eukaryotic ribosomal RNA transcribed?
A) the Golgi apparatus
B) ribosomes
C) the nucleolus
D) X chromosomes
E) prokaryotic cells only
24)
During translation, chain elongation continues until what happens?
A) No further amino acids are needed by the cell.
B) All tRNAs are empty.
C) The polypeptide is long enough.
D) A stop codon is encountered.
E) The ribosomes run off the end of mRNA.
25) Which of the following statements are true about protein synthesis in
prokaryotes?
A) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.
B) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be
translated.
C) Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for targeting proteins to the
appropriate cellular organelles.
D) Only A and B are true.
E) A, B, and C are true.
5
Section 2
Genetics
Midterm Sample questions
26)
A frameshift mutation could result from
A) a base insertion only.
B) a base deletion only.
C) a base substitution only.
D) deletion of three consecutive bases.
E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base.
27)
Which of the following is
not
true of a codon?
A) It consists of three nucleotides.
B) It may code for the same amino acid as another codon does.
C) It never codes for more than one amino acid.
D) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.
E) It is the basic unit of the genetic code.
28)
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is
A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
B) complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
C) the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid.
D) changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA.
E) catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
29) Which of the following is
not true of RNA processing?
A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus.
B) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA.
C) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing.
D) RNA splicing is thought to be catalyzed by spliceosomes.
E) A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the
nucleus.
30) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
A) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA.
B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.
C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA.
D) It translates viral RNA into proteins.
E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands.
31) All of the following are made up of nucleic acid
except a
A) repressor.
B) structural gene.
C) promoter.
D) regulatory gene.
E) operator.
32) The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is
A) permanently turned on.
B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
33) In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around?
A) polymerase molecules
B) ribosomes
C) mRNA
D) histones
6
Section 2
Genetics
Midterm Sample questions
E) nucleolus protein
34) Which of the following statements concerning the eukaryotic chromosome is
false?
A) It is composed of DNA and protein.
B) The nucleosome is the most basic structural subunit.
C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types.
D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA.
E) Active transcription occurs on euchromatin.
35)
In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the
level of
A) transcription.
B) translation.
C) mRNA stability.
D) mRNA splicing.
36) Which of the following proteins functions in the transcription of eukaryotic
mRNAs
A. Rho
B. RNA polymerase I
C. RNA polymerase II
D. RNA polymerase III
E. All of the above
37) What is the mRNA corresponding for the following template DNA sequence?
TCTAATGCATGA
a)5’ TCTUUTGCUTGU 3’
b)5’ AGAUUACGUACU 5’
c)3’ TCTUUTGCUTGU 5’
d)5’ AGAUUACGUACU 5’
e)3’ AGATTACGTACT 5’
38)
Z
a)
5’ UAGCUACGU 3’
b)
3’ UAGCUAGCU 5’
c)
5’ AUCGAUCGA 3’
d)
3’ AUCGAUCGA 5’
e)
5’ UAGCUAGCU 5’
39) Which of these appears in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes?
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Related Questions
The percentage of the agarose gel is important because
a) it influences the rate of migration of the fragments
b) it may cause some DNA molecules to replicate
c) some DNA nucleotides may degraded due to chemical reactions with the gel
d) some DNA molecules may sink to the bottom of the well and not migrate
What is the purpose of a buffer used in electrophoresis?
a) Increase/decrease the current
b) Conduct the current and protect the samples
c) Disrupt the bands
d) Stop the band migration
Which of the following is an additional use of the gel electrophoresis technique?
a) To express DNA
b) To separate RNA
c) To amplify RNA
d) To amplify genes
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22.Identify the single most correct answer:
(a) Ames assay (test) can be used to identify carcinogens but not mutagens.
b) Conjugation in viruses can result in production of an antibiotic resistant virus.
c) Certain groups of viruses are responsible for the process of transduction in bacteria.
d) Organisms in their natural environment cannot exchange genetic information.
e) c and d
24.
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What are the two ingredients in the agarose gel?
a)What apparatus is used to create the wells in the gel?
b) What apparatus is used to create the wells in the gel?
c) To move the DNA through the gel, you must place which charge closest to the wells?
d) What is an observable sign that the current is running?
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Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and incorporate the correct base?
a) Nucleotide excision repair
b) Direct repair
c) Base excision repair
d) Mismatch repair
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A) It denatures genomic DNA and plasmid DNA.
B) It denatures genomic DNA and but not plasmid DNA.
C) It denatures plasmid DNA but not genomic DNA.
D) It denatures neither genomic DNA nor plasmid DNA.
E) This is unpredictable.
Which statement on the migration of DNA fragments through agarose gels is false
A) Small fragments migrate faster than larger fragments because they can move
faster through the agarose pores.
B) Large fragments migrate faster than small fragments because they carry more
negative charges.
C) DNA fragments migrate towards the positive pole.
D) Supercoiled DNA may migrate significantly different through the gel than
linear DNA of equal size.
E) The higher the agarose concentration the better the separation of smaller
fragments as compared to larger fragments.
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Solution B that was used during the plasmid isolation contains 0.2 M NaOH (see practical
manual). Which effect does NaOH have on E. coli DNA
A) It denatures genomic DNA and plasmid DNA.
B) It denatures genomic DNA and but not plasmid DNA.
C) It denatures plasmid DNA but not genomic DNA.
D) It denatures neither genomic DNA nor plasmid DNA.
E) This is unpredictable.
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You followed all the steps correctly with a kit you bought last week. However, NO purified DNA came out of the miniprep (More than one answer possible).
a) The plasmid was lost during culture growth
b) Your tears from doing the same experiment again and again contaminated the reagents, causing them not to work
c) Depurination of the DNA led to loss of genetic material
d) Incomplete lysis of the cells after adding lysis buffer
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Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and incorporate the correct base?a) Direct repairb) Base excision repairc) Mismatch repaird) Nucleotide excision repair
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11 Enzyme assay
A) Always involves asking a substrate
B) Can be very smoke or very complex
C) Always involves ultraviolet light
D) A-C are incorrect
12 Isolation of chromosomal (total) DNA using a spin column
A) Involves a filtration step to remove many different molecules
B) Lysis is an optional step
C) Elution is not necessary
D) Results in a very pure protein preparation
13 Isolation of chromosomal (total) DNA using a spin column
A) Cells must be used using an appropriate method
B) Cell lysis is required
C) Elution of DNA required regardless of the cell type used in the experiment
D) A-C are correct.
14 Isolation of chromosomal (total) DNA using a spin column
A) Washing the spin column is optional
B) DNA must be eluted from the spin column
C) Does not involve centrifugation
D) Only molecules that are supposed to bind to the column do so.
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Why is it important to use a hyperthermophilic DNA polymerase in PCR?
a) Because only hyperthermophiles have DNA polymerases.
b) Because hyperthermophilic DNA polymerase is able to resist the saline reaction conditions.
c) Because hyperthermophilic DNA polymerase is faster than other polymerases.
d) Because hyperthermophilic DNA polymerase is able to resist denaturation at 95℃.
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Which of the following typically causes chromosome mutations such as inversions and translocations?
A) Base modifiers
B) UV light
C) ionizing radiation
D) base analogues
E) intercalating agents
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1) Follow the steps involved in DNA or gene cloning
2) In what process do bacteria take up the recombinant plasmid DNA
3) What are the advantages or replications of gene cloning?
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(a) Why the plasmid (containing the foreign DNA), together with the competentbacterial cells are heated at 42°C? b) What would be the next stage after heat shock? Discuss the process involved.c) How would you analyze the efficiency of the competent cells used duringtransformation?
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1:19
Notepad Free
Enter title...
484%
SAVE UNDO
UV radiation damages DNA by causing...
a) frame-shift mutations
b) base substitutions
c) bonds between neighboring Thymine bases
"thymine dimers"
d) unzipping of the DNA molecue
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12th, 11:59 PM
Selectable markers allow
Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to
select an answer.
a) a plasmid to replicate
b) you to tell if the plasmid is present in a cell
c) you to tell if the you have inserted a piece of DNA into a plasmid
d) none of the above
a.
1o
C.
dl
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26. In some cases involying bacteriophages, the viral DNA will insert itself into the bacterial
DNA. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe this type of insertion?
A) The inserted viral DNA is referred to as a prophage.
B) The inserted viral DNA can leave the bacterial DNA.
C) The inserted viral DNA is a part of the lysogenic cycle of replication.
D) The inserted viral DNA can never leave the bacterial DNA and enter the lytic cycle.
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1) Which technique is best suited to determining which genes are activated in a bacterium during infection while causing disease in a person.
a) SDS-page
b) microarray analysis
c) RFLP analysis
d) clone library analysis
2)Which of the following is not an application of PCR?
a) Determine if two people are related.
b) Identify a bacterial pathogen in a patient sample.
c) Determine the gene sequence of the gene that codes for a bacterial enterotoxin.
d) These are all applications of PCR.
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17. Which pair of scientists discovered the structure of the DNA double helix and helped to make
recombinant DNA technology possible?
18. In this experiment, which of the following DNA molecules carries the gene for kanamycin resistance?
A) the TN903 transposon
B) the pUC plasmid
19. In this experiment, which of the following DNA molecules carries the gene for ampicillin resistance?
A) the TN903 transposon
B) the pUC plasmid
20. In this experiment, both the transposon DNA and the plasmid DNA are cut with which of the
following restriction enzymes?
А) НаеШ
В) ЕcoRI
C) SacI
D) PvuII
21. The restriction enzyme used to cut the DNA generates:
A) blunt ends
B) sticky ends
22. In this experiment, what is required to join the transposon fragment with the linearized plasmid?
A) the enzyme DNA ligase
B) a buffer solution containing ATP
C) an incubator set within the temperature range of 4-22°C
D) all of the above
23. What is the purpose of treating the linearized plasmid with the enzyme alkaline…
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B. Answer the following questions briefly.
1. How do we know that complementary base pairs in DNA really exist?
2. Compare and contrast replication, transcription and translation based on template used, direction of
synthesis, protein/enzyme requirements during initiation, elongation and termination and products.
CRITERIA of
Replication
Transcription
Translation
comparison
1. Template used
2. direction of
synthesis
3. protein enzyme
requirements
a. Initiation
b. Elongation
c. Termination
4. Products
3. How do we know that expression of the information encoded in DNA involves an RNA intermediate?
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The emergence of new molecular biology techniques has allowed researchers to determine DNA sequences quickly and efficiently.
A) How could knowledge of a DNA sequence be abused?
B) How could knowing a DNA sequence be helpful? C) Would you ever consent to having your DNA
sequenced. Explain your answer
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the nucleotide excision repair system can undo damaging caused by UV radiation?
a) cataracts in lens of the eye
b) protein-protein cross-links
c) thymine dimers
d) alternative splicing errors
e) apurinic sites
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Primer needed to initiate DNA replication is
A) DNA segment
B) RNA segment
C) DNA-RNA hybrid
D) Nucleotide
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40) What external factor (aka, damaging agent) gives rise to the following DNA
mutations? Write and DRAW the structure of these external damaging agents.
A) interstrand crosslinks
CH2
HN
NH
H2N
NH2
DNA DNA
B) 3-methyladenine
3-meA
NH2
CH3
C) 1, N2-etheno-dG
N-
dR
1,N2-E-dGuo
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Which of the following statements is false?
a) the bacterial chromosome is usually circular
b) the bacterial chromosome has a single origin of replication
c) the bacterial chromosome consists of a single molecule of DNA
d) plasmids are small DNA molecules that occur in bacteria but are not essential - for normal function.
e) Most bacterial genomes consist of fewer than 1,000 genes
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a) what are restriction enzymes?
b) What is the main function of restriction enzymes in nature?
c) Compare and contrast the these enzymes in nature and in scientific research.
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Please answer all of these questions in details
Answer all of the following questions
a) Define the following terms: biotechnology, Plasmid,Genetic engineering and Transformation
b) List two types of medical products that can be produced using DNA tech-
nology
c) Relate bioethics to the continued development of genetic engineering
techniques.
d) Describe two major goals of the Human Genome Project.
e) Distinguish between proteomics and genomics.
f) Outline the different applications of biotechnology
g) List some techniques of genetic engineering.
h) Delineate the transgenic organisms and their significance.
i) Explain the procedure for the following
PCR, Gel electrophpresis and Gene therapy
j) Describe human genome project and its main goals.
k) Discuss the drastic environmental impacts of oil spills and how the mi-
crobes like bacteria can help mitigate the problem.
l) Give an account of significance of transgenic organisms in food industry.
m) Describe the uses of DNA finger…
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Which of the following is not a DNA repair mechanism?
a) binding-protein excision repair
b) nucleotide excision repair
c) mismatch repair
d) base excision repair
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DNA unwinding is done bya) Ligaseb) Helicasec) Topoisomerased) Hexonuclease
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8) Capillary electrophoresis involves
a) Fragmentation of the DNA strands
b) High resolution separation of fluorescently labelled DNA fragments
c) Fluorescent activation of the DNA
d) None of the above
9) Which of the following is not applicable to capillary electrophoresis?
a) Multiplex PCR
b) Forensic DNA profiling
c) SNP genotyping
d) Accurate DNA quantitation
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Related Questions
- The percentage of the agarose gel is important because a) it influences the rate of migration of the fragments b) it may cause some DNA molecules to replicate c) some DNA nucleotides may degraded due to chemical reactions with the gel d) some DNA molecules may sink to the bottom of the well and not migrate What is the purpose of a buffer used in electrophoresis? a) Increase/decrease the current b) Conduct the current and protect the samples c) Disrupt the bands d) Stop the band migration Which of the following is an additional use of the gel electrophoresis technique? a) To express DNA b) To separate RNA c) To amplify RNA d) To amplify genesarrow_forwardQ12arrow_forward22.Identify the single most correct answer: (a) Ames assay (test) can be used to identify carcinogens but not mutagens. b) Conjugation in viruses can result in production of an antibiotic resistant virus. c) Certain groups of viruses are responsible for the process of transduction in bacteria. d) Organisms in their natural environment cannot exchange genetic information. e) c and d 24. In a use-dilution test, for microorganism X, we evaluated 3 different disinfectants T1, T2 and T3 with the following disinfectant dilutions: 1/10, 1/100, 1/1,000 and 1/10,000. T1 killed the microorganism up to the dilution of 1/100; T2 killed the microorganisms up to the dilution of 1/10,000 and T3 killed the microorganisms up to the dilution of 1/1,000. Rank the disinfectants in the order of their strength with the strongest being first, for disinfecting contaminations with microorganism Xor alternatively are they all equally effective? Choose the most correct answer. a) T1 (the strongest), T2, T3…arrow_forward
- What are the two ingredients in the agarose gel? a)What apparatus is used to create the wells in the gel? b) What apparatus is used to create the wells in the gel? c) To move the DNA through the gel, you must place which charge closest to the wells? d) What is an observable sign that the current is running?arrow_forwardWhich of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and incorporate the correct base? a) Nucleotide excision repair b) Direct repair c) Base excision repair d) Mismatch repairarrow_forwardSolution B that was used during the plasmid isolation contains 0.2 M NaOH (see practical manual). Which effect does NaOH have on E. coli DNA A) It denatures genomic DNA and plasmid DNA. B) It denatures genomic DNA and but not plasmid DNA. C) It denatures plasmid DNA but not genomic DNA. D) It denatures neither genomic DNA nor plasmid DNA. E) This is unpredictable. Which statement on the migration of DNA fragments through agarose gels is false A) Small fragments migrate faster than larger fragments because they can move faster through the agarose pores. B) Large fragments migrate faster than small fragments because they carry more negative charges. C) DNA fragments migrate towards the positive pole. D) Supercoiled DNA may migrate significantly different through the gel than linear DNA of equal size. E) The higher the agarose concentration the better the separation of smaller fragments as compared to larger fragments.arrow_forward
- Solution B that was used during the plasmid isolation contains 0.2 M NaOH (see practical manual). Which effect does NaOH have on E. coli DNA A) It denatures genomic DNA and plasmid DNA. B) It denatures genomic DNA and but not plasmid DNA. C) It denatures plasmid DNA but not genomic DNA. D) It denatures neither genomic DNA nor plasmid DNA. E) This is unpredictable.arrow_forwardYou followed all the steps correctly with a kit you bought last week. However, NO purified DNA came out of the miniprep (More than one answer possible). a) The plasmid was lost during culture growth b) Your tears from doing the same experiment again and again contaminated the reagents, causing them not to work c) Depurination of the DNA led to loss of genetic material d) Incomplete lysis of the cells after adding lysis bufferarrow_forwardPlease help me?? with this question within an hourarrow_forward
- Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and incorporate the correct base?a) Direct repairb) Base excision repairc) Mismatch repaird) Nucleotide excision repairarrow_forwardPlease answer in short and ASAP .arrow_forward11 Enzyme assay A) Always involves asking a substrate B) Can be very smoke or very complex C) Always involves ultraviolet light D) A-C are incorrect 12 Isolation of chromosomal (total) DNA using a spin column A) Involves a filtration step to remove many different molecules B) Lysis is an optional step C) Elution is not necessary D) Results in a very pure protein preparation 13 Isolation of chromosomal (total) DNA using a spin column A) Cells must be used using an appropriate method B) Cell lysis is required C) Elution of DNA required regardless of the cell type used in the experiment D) A-C are correct. 14 Isolation of chromosomal (total) DNA using a spin column A) Washing the spin column is optional B) DNA must be eluted from the spin column C) Does not involve centrifugation D) Only molecules that are supposed to bind to the column do so.arrow_forward
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