Genetics MCQs

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Jan 9, 2024

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1 Section 2 Genetics Midterm Sample questions 1) What does transformation involve in bacteria? A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell 2) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A) DNA does not contain sulfur, whereas protein does. B) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not. C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C 3) Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately, what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? A) 12 B) 24 C) 31 D) 38 E) It cannot be determined from the information provided. 4) What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix? A) hydrogen B) ionic C) covalent D) sulfhydryl E) phosphate 4) DNA replication occurs along a _______ template forming a newly synthesized DNA strand in the _______ direction. a. 5’ to 3’; 5’ to 3’ b. 3’ to 5’; 3’ to 5’ c. 5’ to 3’; 3’ to 5’ d. 3’ to 5’; 5’ to 3’ 6) What is the first step in initiation during DNA synthesis? A) DNA B is recruited and binds to GC rich areas called 9 mers B) DNA A binds to AT rich areas called 9 mers C) Helicase unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds between A-T bases D) Primase is recruited by DNA B to synthesize RNA primers with a free 3’ OH E) All events occur at the same time
2 Section 2 Genetics Midterm Sample questions 7) During elongation, primase is: a. Located only on the leading strand b. Located on the leading and lagging strand, one primase per strand c. Located only on the lagging strand d. Not present any more because it has fulfilled its purpose during initiation e. Not a component in DNA replication 8) How is termination signaled in eukaryotes? A) Ter-tus binding site stops movement of the replication fork B) Continues to the telomere of the chromosome with a 3’ overhang on the lagging strand C) Continues to the telomere of the chromosome with a 3’ overhang on the leading strand D) DNA polymerase I falls off the DNA template strand and stops replication E) An endonuclease cleaves the DNA at a specific sequence signaling DNA polymerase III to stop replication 9) GC base pairs are stronger than AT base pairs because: a. GC pairs are covalently bonded whereas AT pairs are hydrogen bonded b. G and C nucleotides are not as easily recognized by helicases c. G and C nucleotides are more firmly linked to the backbone d. GC pairs have more hydrogen bonds than AT pairs e. All of the above 10) The strands that make up DNA are antiparallel. This means that A) the twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. B) the 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand. C) base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands. D) one strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. E) one strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines. 11) The leading and the lagging strands differ in that A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction. B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end. C) the leading strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together. D) both A and B E) both A and C 12) E. coli cells grown on 15 N medium are transferred to 14 N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment? A) one high-density and one low-density band
3 Section 2 Genetics Midterm Sample questions B) one intermediate-density band C) one high-density and one intermediate-density band D) one low-density and one intermediate-density band E) one low-density band 13) All of the following are functions of DNA polymerase in DNA replication except A) covalently adding nucleotides to the new strands. B) proofreading each added nucleotide for correct base pairing. C) replacing RNA primers with DNA. D) initiating a polynucleotide strand. E) none of the above 14) Which of the following represents a similarity between RNA and DNA? A) Both are double-stranded. B) the presence of uracil C) the presence of an OH group on the 2' carbon of the sugar D) nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogenous base E) Both are found exclusively in the nucleus. 15) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group? A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone B) proteins, ATP, and DNA C) ATP, RNA, and DNA D) alpha glucose, ATP, and DNA E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP 16) If proteins were composed of only 12 different kinds of amino acids, what would be the smallest possible codon size in a genetic system with four different nucleotides? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 12 17) A codon A) consists of two nucleotides. B) may code for the same amino acid as another codon. C) consists of discrete amino acid regions. D) catalyzes RNA synthesis. E) is found in all eukaryotes, but not in prokaryotes. 18) If the triplet CCC codes for the amino acid proline in bacteria, then in plants CCC should code for A) leucine. B) valine. C) cystine. D) phenylalanine. E) proline. 19) Which of the following are transcribed from DNA? A) protein B) exons C) rRNA
4 Section 2 Genetics Midterm Sample questions D) B and C only E) A, B, and C 20) Which of the following is not a part of the eukaryotic transcription initiation complex? A) promoter B) RNA polymerase C) transcription factors D) snRNP E) TATA box 21) All of the following are found in prokaryotic mRNA except A) the AUG codon. B) the UGA codon. C) introns. D) uracil. E) cytosine. 22) Alternative RNA splicing A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription. B) can allow the production of proteins of dramatically different sizes from a single mRNA. C) can allow the production of proteins of dramatically different amino acid sequences from a single mRNA. D) B and C only E) A, B, and C 23) Where is eukaryotic ribosomal RNA transcribed? A) the Golgi apparatus B) ribosomes C) the nucleolus D) X chromosomes E) prokaryotic cells only 24) During translation, chain elongation continues until what happens? A) No further amino acids are needed by the cell. B) All tRNAs are empty. C) The polypeptide is long enough. D) A stop codon is encountered. E) The ribosomes run off the end of mRNA. 25) Which of the following statements are true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes? A) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress. B) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be translated. C) Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for targeting proteins to the appropriate cellular organelles. D) Only A and B are true. E) A, B, and C are true.
5 Section 2 Genetics Midterm Sample questions 26) A frameshift mutation could result from A) a base insertion only. B) a base deletion only. C) a base substitution only. D) deletion of three consecutive bases. E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base. 27) Which of the following is not true of a codon? A) It consists of three nucleotides. B) It may code for the same amino acid as another codon does. C) It never codes for more than one amino acid. D) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule. E) It is the basic unit of the genetic code. 28) The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon. B) complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA. C) the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid. D) changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA. E) catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme. 29) Which of the following is not true of RNA processing? A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus. B) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA. C) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing. D) RNA splicing is thought to be catalyzed by spliceosomes. E) A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus. 30) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. D) It translates viral RNA into proteins. E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands. 31) All of the following are made up of nucleic acid except a A) repressor. B) structural gene. C) promoter. D) regulatory gene. E) operator. 32) The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is A) permanently turned on. B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium. C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium. D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium. E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium. 33) In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around? A) polymerase molecules B) ribosomes C) mRNA D) histones
6 Section 2 Genetics Midterm Sample questions E) nucleolus protein 34) Which of the following statements concerning the eukaryotic chromosome is false? A) It is composed of DNA and protein. B) The nucleosome is the most basic structural subunit. C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types. D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA. E) Active transcription occurs on euchromatin. 35) In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of A) transcription. B) translation. C) mRNA stability. D) mRNA splicing. 36) Which of the following proteins functions in the transcription of eukaryotic mRNAs A. Rho B. RNA polymerase I C. RNA polymerase II D. RNA polymerase III E. All of the above 37) What is the mRNA corresponding for the following template DNA sequence? TCTAATGCATGA a)5’ TCTUUTGCUTGU 3’ b)5’ AGAUUACGUACU 5’ c)3’ TCTUUTGCUTGU 5’ d)5’ AGAUUACGUACU 5’ e)3’ AGATTACGTACT 5’ 38) Z a) 5’ UAGCUACGU 3’ b) 3’ UAGCUAGCU 5’ c) 5’ AUCGAUCGA 3’ d) 3’ AUCGAUCGA 5’ e) 5’ UAGCUAGCU 5’ 39) Which of these appears in eukaryotic genes but not prokaryotic genes?
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